Preparatory Guide on Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Physiology, Microbiology, Immunology, Pharmacology & Drug Discovery

Molecular Biology: Basic concepts and techniques: MCQ

April 29, 2019
Multiple Choice Questions on 
Molecular Biology Techniques

1) DNA is the polydeoxynucleotides that contain mono-deoxynucleotides namely dAMP, dGMP, dCMP, dTMP. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding DNA?
a) DNA is double-stranded.
b) The nucleotides are covalently linked by 3'-5' phosphodiester bond.
c) Both strands of DNA are arranged parallel.
d) DNA has a helical structure.

2) Phosphodiester bonds are cleaved by nucleases a group of enzymes present in the cells. Which of the following is FALSE about nucleases:
a) Nucleases catalyze the hydrolytic cleavage of the phosphodiester linkages.
b) Nucleases can be exonuclease and endonucleases.
c) Exonucleases cleave the chain by removing individual nucleotide from 3' or 5' end.
d) Exonucleases cleave the chain randomly between any nucleotides.

3) Chromatin is a structural complex present in eukaryotes. The chromatin consists of the following components EXCEPT:
a) DNA
b) Histone proteins
c) RNA
d) None of the Above 


4) The plasmids are the extrachromosomal materials that serve the following function EXCEPT
a) May carry genes responsible for antibiotic resistance
b) May facilitate the genetic information transfer
c) Necessary for cell replication and division
d) None of the above

5) Which of the following is not the core submit of the octamer histone protein?
a) H1
b)H2A
c)H2B
d)H3

6) Which of the following process does not occur in prokaryotes?
a) Replication
b) Transformation
c) Conjugation
d) Splicing

7) Among them, which is “palindrome” Sequence?
a) 5’-GATTAC-3’
b) 5’-GCATTA-3’
c) 5’-GTCTAA-3’
d) 5’-GAATTC-3’

8) The base that are not present in the RNA coding sequence is.....
a) Adenine
b) Guanine
c) Thiamine
d) Cytosine

9) Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization techniques are used for detection of
a) Chromosome
b) Glycoprotein
c) Cholesterol
d) Glycogen

10) Southern Blot is used to detect
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Proteins
d) Chromosomes

11) Which of the following is not the cloning vector utilized in recombinant DNA technology?
a) Plasmid
b) Cosmids
c) Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes
d) Yeast Intact chromosomes

12) Which of the following term is not true regarding restriction enzymes used in recombinant DNA technology
a) They are site specific
b) They recognize palindromic sequences
c) They are endonucleases
d) They are ATP dependent nucleases

13) Which of the following libraries provides information about functional genomics?
a) DNA library
b) cDNA library
c) RNA library
d) Protein library

14) Which of the following DNA technology is used to identifying the suspects in the criminal investigation?
a) Western blot
b) RFLP
c) Northern blot
d) Southern blot

15) Which of the following DNA technology is used for amplification of DNA in vitro?
a) Polymerase Chain Reaction
b) Restriction Analysis
c) Northern blot
d) Southern blot

16) The blotting technique which is used to detect the RNA in a sample is....
a) Southern blotting
b) Eastern blotting
c) Northern blotting
d) Western blotting

1-c) Both strands of DNA are arranged parallel
2-d) Exonucleases cleave the chain randomly between any nucleotides
3-c) RNA 
4-c) Necessary for cell replication and division
5-a) H1
6-d) Splicing
7-c) 5’-GTCTAA-3’
8-c) Thiamine
9-a) Chromosome
10-a) DNA
11-d) Yeast Intact chromosomes
12-d) They are ATP dependent nucleases
13-b) cDNA library
14)-b) RFLP 
15-a) Polymerase Chain Reaction
16-c) Northern blotting

Molecular Biology: Basic concepts and techniques: MCQ Molecular Biology: Basic concepts and techniques: MCQ Reviewed by Biotechnology on April 29, 2019 Rating: 5

Molecular Biology: Protein Synthesis (Translation) & Lac Operon

April 29, 2019
Multiple Choice Question on 
Protein Synthesis and Regulations 

1) The genetic code is a triple nucleotide sequence in the mRNA that determines the amino acid sequence of the protein. Following are the characteristics of amino acid EXCEPT:
a) Specificity
b) Universal
c) Redundant
d) Overlapping

2) Aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase catalyzes the addition of amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain and it requires four high energy phosphates. They are
a) 4 ATP
b) 4 GTP
c) 2 ATP, 2 GTP
d) 1 ATP, 3 GTP

3) The ribosome has three binding sites (A, P, E) for tRNA molecules. Which of the following is NOT the correct statement regarding these sites?
a) The A site binds to an incoming aminoacyl-tRNA
b) The P site codon is occupied by peptidyl-tRNA (an amino acid containing tRNA)
c) The E site is occupied by empty t-RNA as it is exiting the ribosome
d) None of the Above

4) Shine Dalgarno sequence is located six to ten bases upstream of the initiation codon of mRNA. It consists of
a) Purine-rich nucleotide sequence
b) Pyrimidine rich nucleotide sequence
c) Uracil-containing nucleotide sequence
d) None of the above

5) Which of the following is the initiation codon?
a) UGA
b) AUG
c) CUA
d) GAA

6) In prokaryotes, the initiation factors (IF-1, IF-2, and IF-3) are involved in the initiation of protein synthesis. Which of the following factors facilitates the initiation codon?
a) IF-1
b) IF-2
c) IF-3
d) All of the above

7) EF-Tu and EF-Ts bind to appropriate tRNA to the codon in the empty sites. These factors are involved in the............ of translation.
a) Initiation
b) Elongation
c) Termination
d) Trimming

8) Chloramphenicol is a class of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by inhibiting
a) Aminoacyl transferase
b) Peptidyl transferase
c) Initiation factor 1
d) Elongation factor

9) Puromycin, a structural analog of tRNA, is a class of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by
a) inhibiting amino acyltransferase
b) inhibiting peptidyl transferase
c) early termination of the peptide chain
d) None of the above

10) Tetracyclin is a class of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by blocking
a) binding of initiation factors
b) binding of elongation factors to tRNA
c) binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the mRNA-ribosome complex
d) None of the above


11) Which one of the followings is not true about genetic code?
a) It is degenerate
b) It is unambiguous
c) It is nearly universal
d) It is overlapping
12) Which of the following is not the component of ribosomal RNA present in prokaryotes?
a) 23S rRNA
b) 18S rRNA
c) 16S rRNA
d) 5S rRNA



13) Which of the following is not the component of ribosomal RNA present in eukaryotes?
a) 28S rRNA
b) 18S rRNA
c) 16S rRNA
d) 5S rRNA

14) Which of the following is the site for attachment of amino acid in tRNA molecule?
a) 5' end
b) 3' end
c) anti-codon loop
d) None of the above

15) Lactose Operon is a set of lactose metabolizing gene that is co-coordinately expressed and regulated. The following is not the gene of lactose operon:
a) LacX
b) LacZ
c) LacY
d) LacA

16) Which of the following is not the positive regulator of Lac operon
a) Allolactose
b) Glucose
c) Lactose
d) cAMP

17) Which of the following is the FALSE statement of the Lactose operon
a) Lac Operon is activated when glucose is absent
b) Lac Operon is activated when lactose is present
c) Lac Operon is activated when glucose is absent and lactose is present
d) Lac Operon is activated when glucose is present and lactose is absent

18) Which of the following gene encodes for repressor protein of lac operon
a) LacI
b) LacZ
c) LacY
d) LacA

19) LacZ encodes for a protein
a) permease
b) beta-galactosidase
c) transacetylase
d) repressor protein

20) Adenylyl cyclase is an enzyme that is active in the absence of
a) Allolactose
b) Glucose
c) Lactose
d) cAMP

21) Peptidyl transferase enzyme is present in
a) Messenger RNA
b) Transfer RNA
c) Ribosomal RNA
d) Small Nuclear RNA



21) The following are the post-translational modifications that may be required for trafficking or the function of the proteins, except:
a) Hydroxylation
b) Glycosylation
c) Oxygenation
d) Phosphorylation

Multiple Choice Answers
1)- d) Overlapping
2)- c) 2 ATP, 2 GTP
3)- d) None of the Above
4)- a) Purine-rich nucleotide sequence
5)- b) AUG
6)- b) IF-2
7)- b) Elongation
8)-d) Elongation factor
9)-c) early termination of the peptide chain
10)-c) binding of amino acyl tRNA to the mRNA-ribosome complex 

11)-d) It is overlapping
12)-b) 18S rRNA
13)-c) 16S rRNA
14)-c) anti-codon loop
15)-a) LacX
16)-b) Glucose
17)-d) Lac Operon is activated when glucose is present and lactose is absent
18)-a) LacI
19)-b) beta-galactosidase
20)-b) Glucose

21)-c) Ribosomal RNA
22-c) Oxygenation

Molecular Biology: Protein Synthesis (Translation) & Lac Operon Molecular Biology: Protein Synthesis (Translation) & Lac Operon Reviewed by Biotechnology on April 29, 2019 Rating: 5

Immunology: MCQ on Immune Tolerance & Autoimmunity

April 24, 2019

Multiple Choice Question on  Immune Tolerance & Autoimmunity

1) Which of the following option is the mechanism for induction of immune tolerance?
a) Central Anergy
b) Peripheral Anergy
c) Clonal Anergy
d) All of the above

2) The central tolerance occurs in thymus and bone marrow. Which of the following statement is true regarding central tolerance?
a) The positive selection occurs in cortex before maturing and entering the circulation.
b) The negative selection occurs in the medulla.
c) The negative selection removes cells that have high affinities for self-antigen
d) All of the above


3) After exiting thymus, mature T cells are subjected to the secondary selection where the majority of self-reactive T cells are deleted or rendered anergic. The process is known as
a) Central Anergy
b) Peripheral Anergy
c) Clonal Anergy
d) All of the above 

4) Certain autoimmune disorders are monogenic-caused by a mutation in a single gene. The following are the monogenic autoimmune disease except:
a) Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome
b) Autoimmune polyadenopathy
c) Immunodysregulation polyendocrinopathy (X-linked)
d) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

5) The autoimmune thyroid disorder with a presence of anti-TSH receptor antibody is suggestive of:
a) Hashimoto thyroiditis
b) Grave's disease
c) Goodpasture syndrome
d) None of the above

6) Which of the following is the multifactorial autoimmune disorder?
a) Multiple Sclerosis
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Autoimmune hepatitis
d) Lymphoproliferative syndrome

7) The antibody generated against the intrinsic factor in the gastric tissue leads to
a) Goodpasture syndrome
b) Pernicious anemia
c) Celiac disease
d) None of the above

8) The autoimmune disorder with an elevated anti-thyroglobulin antibody is
a) Hashimoto thyroiditis
b) Grave's disease
c) Goodpasture syndrome
d) None of the above

9) The presence of anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies increased the susceptibility to
a) Type 1 Diabetes mellitus
b) Celiac disease
c) Grave's disease
d) Pernicious anemia 

10) The following antibodies not associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus EXCEPT?
a) Anti-ANA antibody
b) Anti-cardiolipin antibody
c) Anti-dsDNA
d) None of the above


11) In Rheumatic fever, the cross-reactivity between the bacterial M protein and human lysoganglioside that lead to the development of cardiac T cells. M protein is a cell wall component of
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Hemophilus influenza
d) Neisseria gonorrhea 

12) The generation of reactive cells against HHV-6 encoded U24 cross-reactive with myelin basic protein resulting in autoimmune disease
a) Myasthenia gravis
b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Grave's disease
d) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

13) Myasthenia Gravis is caused by the production of autoantibodies against
a) Myelin basic proteins
b) TSH receptor
c) Acetylcholine receptor
d) None of the above

14) Which of the following MHC allelic form is protective against ulcerative colitis?
a) HLA class II DR2
b) HLA class II DR4
c) HLA class II DR15
d) HLA class II DR9

15) The B27 HLA allele is associate the following condition
a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Psoriasis
c) Inflammatory bowel disease
d) All of the above

Multiple Choice Answers
1-d) All of the above
2-d) All of the above
3-b) Peripheral Anergy
4-d) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
5-b) Grave's disease
6-d) Lymphoproliferative syndrome
7-b) Pernicious anemia
8-a) Hashimoto thyroiditis
9-a) Type 1 Diabetes mellitus
10-d) None of the above
11-b) Streptococcus pyogenes
12-b) Multiple sclerosis
13-c) Acetylcholine receptor
14-b) HLA class II DR4
15-d) All of the above

Immunology: MCQ on Immune Tolerance & Autoimmunity Immunology: MCQ on Immune Tolerance & Autoimmunity Reviewed by Biotechnology on April 24, 2019 Rating: 5

Medical Mycology: MCQ on Superficial and Cutaneous Mycoses

April 23, 2019

Multiple Choice Questions on Superficial and Cutaneous Fungal Infections

1) All of the following are examples of superficial mycoses, EXCEPT?
a) Tinea versicolor
b) Tinea nigra
c) Black piedra
d) Tinea pedis


2) Which of the following statement regarding Tinea nigra infections is NOT correct?
a) Most prevalent in the tropical and subtropical region
b) Pigmented macules appear on palm and soles
c) It is difficult to isolate by microscopic examination from skin scrapings
d) Usually related to poor hygiene

3) The fungi Trichosporon commonly causes superficial infection of hair also called white piedra. Which of the following species of Trichosporon causes scalp hair white piedra?
a) T. ovoides
b) T. inkin
c) T. asahii
d) None of the above

4) All of the following are the characteristics of cutaneous mycoses, EXCEPT?
a) The infection of hair, skin, and nails
b) The common cause of ringworm in human only
c) Candida spp is associated with the infection
d) The keratinized layer of the skin are prone to the infection

5) A 26 year old man develops itchy, white flaky and stingy patches in between the toe webs and soles of the feet, the infection is characterized by inflammation and skin fissures, which of the following is the possible etiological agent?
a) Trichophyton rubrum
b) Microsporum canis
c) Trichophyton equinum
d) Trichophyton tonsurans

6) Which of the following is the common cause of Athlete's foot?
a) Wearing tight shoes
b) Sweating a lot
c) Keeping the feet wet for a long period of time
d) All of the above

7) A 2-year-old girl develops a rash with raised borders on her face and arms and the source of infection is found to be the pet cat who has the same type of rash on its skin. Which of the following is the most likely fungi?
a) Trichophyton rubrum
b) Trichophyton tonsurans
c) Microsporum canis
d) Candida albicans

8) All of the following are zoophilic dermatophytes, select from all the options given below.
a) Microsporum canis
b) Trichophyton equinum
c) Trichophyton simii
d) Microsporum nanum


9) What is the most reliable laboratory method for the isolation of Trichophyton rubrum?
a) Blood culture
b) Serological methods
c) Skin scrapings microscopic examination using KOH
d) Urease test

10) Which of the following dermatophytes does NOT have the spore form characteristic called Microconidia?
a) Microsporum spp
b) Epidermaphyton spp
c) Trichophyton spp
d) Blastomyces spp

11) Which of the following is the lesion characteristics of Pityriasis versicolor?
a) Hypopigmented and hyperpigmented round and smooth macules on the skin
b) Hypopigmented and Hyperpigmented irregular macules on the skin
c) Yellow pigmented patches around fingernails
d) White pigmented patches around the neck and face

12) A 5-year-old kindergartener boy develops scaling of scalp and hair loss. After routine fungal examination, scalp ringworm was observed. Which of the following is a likely pathogen?
a) Trichophyton tonsurans
b) Epidermophyton flocossum
c) Trichophyton rubrum
d) Aspergillus terreus

13) What is the most correct name of the fungal infection mentioned above in the above question number 12?
a) Tinea pedis
b) Tinea nigra
c) Tinea capitis
d) Tinea barbae

14) All of the following are common dermatophytes responsible for the infection of nails, EXCEPT?
a) Epidermophyton flocossum
b) Trichophyton rubrum
c) Trichophyton mentagrophytes complex
d) Microsporum canis

15) Which of the following is the most common and effective method used for the treatment and control of localized infection by dermatophytes that do not involve hair and nails?
a) Use of topical ointments such as azole
b) Surgery
c) Oral therapy
d) All of the above


Multiple Choice Answers
1-d) Tinea pedis
2-c) It is difficult to isolate by microscopic examination from skin scrapings
3-a) T. ovoides
4-b) Common cause of ringworm in human only
5-a) Trichophyton rubrum
6-d) All of the above
7-c) Microsporum canis
8-All option a. b, c, & d
9-c) Skin scrapings microscopic examination using KOH
10-b) Epidermaphyton spp
11-b) Hypopigmented and Hyperpigmented irregular macules on the skin
12-a) Trichophyton tonsurans
13-c) Tinea capitis
14-d) Microsporum canis
15-a) Use of topical ointments such as azole
Medical Mycology: MCQ on Superficial and Cutaneous Mycoses Medical Mycology: MCQ on Superficial and Cutaneous Mycoses Reviewed by Biotechnology on April 23, 2019 Rating: 5

Immunology: MCQ on Immediate and Delayed Hypersensitivity

April 10, 2019
Multiple Choice Question
on Immediate and Delayed Hypersensitivity

1) Hypersensitivity reactions are broadly classified into four different types. Which of the following hypersensitivity occurs via IgE antibody?
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity

2) The T helper 1 cells release cytokines to activate macrophage or T cells and cause direct cellular damage. Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by sensitized T helper-1 cells?
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity

3) Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions is a result of massive deposition of immune complex in various tissues? These immune complex induce complement activation and inflammation response
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity

4) Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involve antibody directed complement activation and antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity?
a) Type I hypersensitivity
b) Type II hypersensitivity
c) Type III hypersensitivity
d) Type IV hypersensitivity

5) When allergen crosslinks with IgE bound to the Fc receptor on the mast cells, the allergen induces the release of mediators. Which of the following receptor have high affinity towards IgE?
a) FcεRI
b) FcεRII
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

6) A hereditary predisposition of the development of immediate hypersensitivity reaction against common environmental antigens are called
a) Atrophy
b) Atopy
c) Anergy
d) Synergy

7) Which of the following domain present in the Fc region of IgE molecule enables the binding of glycoprotein receptor on the surface of the basophils and mast cells?
a)CH1
b)CH2
c) CH3
d) CH4

8) The high-affinity FcεRI receptor functions in signal transduction, activation, and degranulation of chemical mediators such as histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins for the mast cells. Which of the following intracellular messenger serve this function?
a) Ca++
b) cAMP
c) cGMP
d) None of the above

9) The persistent level of which of the following second messenger inhibits the degranulation of the mast cells and release of the mediators of anaphylaxis?
a) Ca++
b) cAMP
c) cGMP
d) None of the above

10) Which of the following is not an example of Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a) Asthma
b) Allergic Rhinitis
c) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
d) Atopic Dermatitis

11) The type I early response occur within minutes of allergic response. Which of the following is the early mediator of type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a) Histamine
b) Leukotrienes
c) Prostaglandins
d) All of the above

12) The type I late response occurs hours later and involves the following mediators.
a) IL4
b) IL-5
c) TNF-α
d) All of the above

13) All of the following drugs are involved in increased production or maintenance of cAMP level to prevent anaphylaxis EXCEPT:
a) Theophylline
b) Epinephrine
c) Cromolyn sodium
d) Cortisone

14) During a blood transfusion, ABO incompatibilities lead to the recognition of A or B antigens present on the RBC resulting in complement-mediated cell lysis. Which of the following antibody isotype is primarily involved in this type II hypersensitivity reaction?
a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgE
d) IgA

15) Erythroblastosis fetalis is a severe form of hemolytic disease developed when Rh+ fetus expresses Rh antigen on its blood that mother do not express. Which of the following condition is true regarding this condition?
a) During the first pregnancy, the exposure of Rh antigen leads to the generation of memory cells and the IgG response that is harmful during the subsequent pregnancy
b) The condition may be prevented by infusing and reducing exposure to Rh antigen within 24-48 hours of pregnancy
c) Plasmapheresis may be used to remove the antibodies from the circulation
d) All of the above

16) Which of the following drugs can induce all four types of hypersensitive reactions?
a) Penicillin
b) Sulfonamides
c) Local anesthetics
d) Salicylates

17) Which of the following the disease is not the example of type III hypersensitivity reaction?
a) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
b) Rheumatoid Arthritis
c) Good Pasture’s syndrome
d) Down Syndrome

18) All of the following statement regarding Type III hypersensitivity reaction is true EXCEPT:
a) Antigen-antibody forms a large complex and deposited in the nearby tissue
b) Immune complex activate the complement system and anaphylatoxins
b) The anaphylatoxin such as C3a, C3b recruits neutrophils at the site of immune complex deposition
c) Neutrophil and macrophages clear the immune complexes and tissue damage

19) Which of the following statement is not true regarding the sensitization phase of delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH)?
a) The sensitization phase begins 1-2 weeks after the primary contact with antigens
b) T cell undergo activation and clonal expansion after interacting with antigen-MHC complex
c) CD8+ T Helper-1 cells are primarily activated after exposure to antigen
d) CD4+ T Helper-1 cells are primarily activated after exposure to antigen

20) Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effector phase of delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH)?
a) The response generally peaks at 48-72 hours after a second exposure to the antigen
b) T Helper 2 cells secrete antibodies and activate antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity
c) T Helper 2 cells secrete a variety of cytokines that recruit and activate macrophages
d) DTH response becomes self-destructive to the intense response that is visible as the granulomatous reaction.

Bonus Question:
Which of the following cytokines are important for DTH and also used of diagnosis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a) TNF-α
b) TNF-β
c) IFN-α
d) IFN-γ


Answers
1- a) Type I hypersensitivity
2- d) Type IV hypersensitivity
3- c) Type III hypersensitivity
4- b) Type II hypersensitivity
5- a) FcεRI
6- b) Atopy
7- d) CH4
8- a) Ca++
9- b) cAMP
10- c) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
11- d) All of the above
12- d) All of the above
13)- c) Cromolyn sodium
14- b) IgM
15- d) All of the above
16- a) Penicillin
17- d) Down Syndrome
18- c) Neutrophil and macrophages clear the immune complexes and tissue damage
19- c) CD8+ T Helper-1 cells are primarily activated after exposure to antigen
20- b) T Helper 2 cells secrete antibodies and activate antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity


Immunology: MCQ on Immediate and Delayed Hypersensitivity Immunology: MCQ on Immediate and Delayed Hypersensitivity Reviewed by Biotechnology on April 10, 2019 Rating: 5

Medical Mycololgy: MCQ on Fungi and Fungal Infection

April 08, 2019

Multiple Choice Question on Fungi and Fungal Infections


1) What are the different types of medically important fungal infections? Select from all the options below?
a) Superficial mycoses
b)Subcutaneous mycoses
c) Opportunistic mycoses
d) Systemic mycoses

2) Which of the following is NOT the general characteristics of fungi?
a) They are heterotypic eukaryotic cells
b) Many fungi contain glucose polymers
c) Reproduce asexually only
d) The cell wall is composed of lipids

3) Which of the following dimorphic fungi is an important human pathogen?
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Blastomyces dermatitidis
c) Mucor
d) Aspergillus niger

4) Which of the following statement is most correct about hyphae?
a) It is present in yeast and fungi
b) They are a group of mycelia
c) All fungi having hyphae consist of the separating wall called septa
d) The cell wall consists of a polysaccharide called chitin

5) What are different distinguishing characteristics between yeast and molds? Select from all the options given below
a) Yeast and molds both are multicellular organisms
b) Molds reproduce both asexually and sexually whereas Yeast reproduce asexually
c) Molds have fuzzy growth colonies and yeast form smooth colonies
d) Both molds and yeast appear in many different colors

6) Which of the following statement is most correct about Dermatophytosis?
a) Microsporum canis causes chronic dermatophytosis
b) Dimorphic fungi only cause dermatophytosis
c) It is the fungal invasion of tissues of hair, skin, and nails
d) The most common cause of lung infections

7) The pH level of the fungal culture media is an important growth factor for fungi, what is the best pH range for the growth?
a) pH 7 to 9
b) pH 3 to 5
c) pH 2 to 7
d) pH 4 to 6

8) All of the following are the common stain used in the direct microscopic examination for the fungal infection specimens, EXCEPT?
a) India Ink stain
b) Silver stain
c) Lactophenol cotton blue stain
d) Leishman’s stain

9) What color does the fungal cell wall appear when dyed with Periodic acid-Schiff stain?
a) Black
b) Red
c) It appears colorless
d) Violet

10) Which of the following fungi produces poisonous substance mycotoxin called aflatoxin and can
a) Candida albicans
b) Mucor
c) Aspergillus flavus
d) Rhizopus

11) The growth temperature is an important factor for dimorphic pathogenic fungi which exists both in yeast and mold.
a) True
b) False

12) Which of the following is the most correct statement regarding the Deuteromycetes also known as fungi imperfecti?
a) They are the causative agent of subcutaneous mycoses
b) The sexual reproduction method is not clearly known
c) They produce basidiospores through asexual reproduction method
d) None of the above

13) The yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is most commonly used in the production of which of the following product?
a) Wine
b) Orange juice
c) Cheese
d) Sausages

14) What are the general characteristics of water molds? Select from all the options below
a) They are also called slime molds
b) The causative agent for potato and tomato diseases
c) They can also grow on freshwater
d) All of the above

15) What are the most common laboratory culture media for fungal growth? Select from all the options below
a) Sabouraud dextrose agar
b) Brain heart infusion agar
c) Thayer Martin medium
d) Cornmeal agar

Multiple Choice Answers
1- Option a, b, c and d
2-c) Reproduce asexually only
3-b) Blastomyces dermatitidis
4-d) Cell wall consists of a polysaccharide called chitin
5-Option b and c
6-c) It is the fungal invasion of tissues of hair, skin, and nails
7-d) pH 4 to 6
8-d) Leishman’s stain
9-b) Red
10-c) Aspergillus flavus
11-True
12-b) The sexual reproduction method is not clearly known
13-a) Wine
14- c) They can also grow on freshwater
15- Option a & b
Medical Mycololgy: MCQ on Fungi and Fungal Infection Medical Mycololgy: MCQ on Fungi and Fungal Infection Reviewed by Biotechnology on April 08, 2019 Rating: 5

Immunology: MCQ on Complement Pathway

April 05, 2019


Multiple Choice Questions on Complement Pathway and Immune Response 

1) Complements are the proteins that are involved in the clearance of antigens/bacteria. Which of the following pathway is involved in the adaptive immune response?
a) Alternative Pathway
b) Classical Pathway
c) Lectin Binding Pathway
d) All of the above

2) In the classical pathway, the antibody activated the C1 complex consisting of C1q, C1r & C1s subunit. Which of the following subunit binds to the antibody
a) C1q
b) C1r
c) C1s
d) All of the above

3) Which of the following isotype antibody is a potent activator of the classical complement pathway?
a) IgM
b) IgA
c) IgE
d) IgG


4) Which of the following C1 subunit has the catalytic activity that cleaves C4 and C2 complement proteins?
a) C1q
b) C1r
c) C1s
d) None of the above

5) In the classical pathway, which of the following complement complex serve as C3 convertase
a) C4aC2a
b) C4bC2b
c) C4bC2a
d) C4aC2b

6) In the classical pathway, after the proteolysis of C3 complement pathway, which component is cleaved by C4bC2aC3b and initiate the formation of membrane attack complex
a) C5
b) C6
c) C7
d) C8

7) The alternative pathway is activated in response to antigens and but does not require antibody interaction. The following proteins are the component of the alternative pathway except:
a) C3
b) Factor B
c) Factor D
d) Properdin

8) C3 undergo spontaneous hydrolysis to form C3a and C3b, but they have short half-before encountering the carbohydrate bacterial antigens only. Which of the following carbohydrate moieties present in the mammalian cells that inactivates C3b?
a) Mannose-6-phosphate
b) Sialic acid
c) Sphingosine
d) None of the above
9) Which of the following process is required for the formation of C3 convertase that amplifies complement activation?
a) C3b must bind to foreign antigens
b) Factor B must bind to C3b for its proteolysis by Factor D
c) Properdin must bind to the C3bBb complex for stabilization
d) All of the above

10) Certain microorganism such as Salmonella, Listeria, Neisseria, Cryptococcus consist of specific carbohydrate moieties on the surface antigen that activate
a) Alternative Pathway
b) Classical Pathway
c) Lectin Binding Pathway
d) All of the above


11) The membrane attack complex consists of five different complement proteins C5, C6, C7, C8, and C9. Which of the following subunits bind to the surface and provide a binding site for a subsequent component?
a) C5a
b) C5b
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

12) Which of the following complement protein polymerizes to form perforin like structure that stabilizes membrane attack complex.
a) C6
b) C7
c) C8
d) C9

13) Which of the following component of complement proteins enhances inflammation (anaphylatoxin)?
a) C3a
b) C5a
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

14) Which of the following complement component facilitate opsonization and phagocytosis?
a) C3a
b) C3b
c) C5a
4) C5b

15) Which of the complement receptor activate phagocytosis by binding to C3b & C4b coated particles
a) CR1
b) CR2
c) CR3
d) CR4


16) Which of the following complement receptor activate a humoral response by promoting trapping of an antigen-antibody complex?
a) CR1
b) CR2
c) CR3
d) CR4

17) The deficiency of the complement proteins (C1q, C1q, C1s) or the complement receptors lead to the accumulation of immune complexes resulting in SLE or vasculitis. The deficiency affects the following complement pathway
a) Alternative pathway
b) Classical pathway
c) Lectin binding pathway
d) None of the above

18) The deficiency of the complement component factor D and properdin lead to the recurrent bacterial infection. Which of the following pathway is affected in this condition?
a) Alternative pathway
b) Classical pathway
c) Lectin binding pathway
d) None of the above

19) Erythrocytes express the complement receptor help that transport and clear the immune complex from circulation. Which of the following complement receptor is expressed in the erythrocytes?
a) CR1
b) CR2
c) CR3
d) CR4

20) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is the condition that manifests as increased fragility of erythrocytes, leading to chronic hemolytic anemia, pancytopenia, and venous thrombosis. Which of the following option is associated with PNH?
a) Deficiency of complement protein C9
b) Deficiency of Factor D
c) Deficiency of DAF
d) Deficiency of complement receptor


Multiple Choice Question answer
1)- b
2)- a
3)- a
4)- c
5)- b
6)- a
7)- a
8)- b
9)- d
10)- c
11)- a
12)- d
13)- c
14)- b
15)- a
16)- b
17)- b
18)- a
19)- a
20)- c


Immunology: MCQ on Complement Pathway Immunology: MCQ on Complement Pathway Reviewed by Biotechnology on April 05, 2019 Rating: 5
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