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Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics: MCQ

Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics Multiple Choice Question 1) Osmotic diuretics are contraindicated in a) Increased in...

Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Hepatitis viruses, infection and transmission

September 12, 2019

Multiple Choice Question of Hepatitis viruses, types, infection and transmission

1) Which of the following organ is primarily infected by Hepatitis viruses?

a) Intestines
b) Gall bladder
c) Stomach
d) Liver

2) All of the following are the type RNA virus, EXCEPT?

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis D


3) Which of the following virus is NOT transmitted through the parenteral route?

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis D

4) Hepatitis A virus (HAV) belongs to which of the following family of viruses?

a) Hepadnaviridae
b) Hepeviridae
c) Picornaviridae
d) Flaviviridae

5) All of the following are the important structural characteristics of the Hepatitis B virus (HBV) EXCEPT?

a) The size of the virus is 42 nm in diameter
b) The envelope consists of surface antigen (HBsAg) and lipid
c) Consists of the single-stranded RNA genome
d) The mode of transmission is parenteral

6) All of the following statements regarding HBV infection is true, EXCEPT?

a) Acute liver infection is subclinical in about 70 percent
b) Chronic hepatitis B can lead to cirrhosis and liver cancer
c) Infants born to infected mothers can have this virus
d) Medications are not available for the treatment of the chronic hepatitis B infection

7) Which of the following is the major risk factor for the Hepatitis C virus (HCV)infection in the United States of America?

a) Sexual activity
b) Use of drugs
c) Blood transfusion
d) Tattoos

8) Hepatitis D virus is also known as the delta virus requires HBV to cause infection in people

a) TRUE
b) FALSE


9) Hepatitis E virus (HEV) infection is more commonly found in developing countries which is transmitted mostly through contaminated water, all of the following are the signs and symptoms of HEV, EXCEPT?

a) Blood in the stool
b) Nausea and vomiting
c) Yellowing of the skin
d) Low-grade fever

10) Which of the following statement is true for hepatitis causing viruses HAV, HCV, HDV, and HEV?

a) Transmitted via the fecal-oral route
b) Transmitted via the parenteral route
c) Contain a single-stranded RNA genome
d) Can lead to liver cancer

11) Which of the following group of people are NOT considered in the increased risk of acquiring HAV infections?

a) People traveling to developed countries to developing countries
b) Men having a sexual relationship with other men
c) People working with primates
d) From infectious pregnant women to their babies >

12) A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with abdominal discomfort and vomiting, low grade and fever, the diagnosis was done and is found to be infected with HAV. In a blood sample, IgM antibodies detection confirms the HAV infection, how long after the initial infection these antibodies are found in the blood?

a) 24 hours
b) 3 to 4 days
c) 1 to 2 weeks
d) 12 hours

13) All of the following statements are true for the diagnosis of HBV infection, EXCEPT?

a) Tests for the detection of elevated liver enzymes should be done
b) Serological tests to detect
c) Liver function test- bilirubin
d) Glucose challenge test       

14) Which of the following statements about HDV is NOT correct?

a) RNA virus
b) Transmitted by parenteral route
c) Can replicate only when in a cell that is also infected by HBV
d) None of the above


15) According to the World Health Organization recent survey, about what percentage of people know they are living with Hepatitis infection?

a) 75 %
b) >5 %
c) 25 %
d) 50 %

16) What are the other risk factors that can cause hepatitis infection apart from virus, Select all the correct answers?

a) Abuse of drugs
b) High alcohol consumption
c) Fatty liver
d) Autoimmune infection

17) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the vaccination of HAV, HBV, and HCV?

a) Hepatitis A vaccination should be started when kids are 1 year old
b) Newborns from infected mothers are only required to get the HBV vaccine
c) There is no vaccine available for HCV
d) All of the above

18) HEV can cause epidemics of jaundice, more commonly seen in developing countries. All of the following are the most common sources of HEV, EXCEPT?

a) Contaminated water
b) Raw or undercooked pork
c) Contaminated blood products
d) A sexual relationship with an infected individual

19) All of the following statements about the HEV is true, EXCEPT?

a) Transmitted by the fecal-oral route
b) It is a non-enveloped virus
c) The major cause of hepatitis liver cancer
d) Found in rodents and pigs

20) Hepatitis C infection in the USA is increasing among young adults in the USA, there is more than 100 % increase since 2005 particularly seen among young adults. Which of the following is the most common cause of this infection?

a) Injecting drug use
b) Sexual relation
c) Baby born to an infectious mother
d) Sharing razors and toothbrushes


Answers
1) d) Liver >
2) b) Hepatitis B >
3) a) Hepatitis A >
4) c) Picornaviridae >
5) c) Consists of single-stranded RNA genome >
6) d) Medications are not available for the treatment of the chronic hepatitis B infection >
7) c) Blood transfusion >
8) a) TRUE >
9) a) Blood in the stool >
10) c) Contain a single-stranded RNA genome >
11) d) From infectious pregnant women to their babies >
12) c)1 to 2 weeks >
13) d) Glucose challenge test              >
14) d) None of the above >
15) b) >5 % >
16) All options above
17) b) Newborns from infected mothers are only required to get the HBV vaccine
18) d) A sexual relationship with the infected individual
19) c) The major cause of hepatitis liver cancer
20) a) Injecting drug use


Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Hepatitis viruses, infection and transmission Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Hepatitis viruses, infection and transmission Reviewed by Biotechnology on September 12, 2019 Rating: 5

MCQ on Heme synthesis & Related Inherited Disease (Porphyria)

August 27, 2019

Multiple Choice Question on Heme synthesis & Related Inherited Disease (Porphyria)

1) Heme is a tetrapyrrole structure consisting of Fe+2 ions in the center of the porphyrin ring. Which of the following proteins consist of heme?

a) Myoglobin
b) Hemoglobin 
c) Cytochrome
d) All of the above

2) Besides erythroid precursor cells, which of the following is the site for the synthesis of heme?

a) Kidney
b) Spleen
c) Liver
d) Heart

3) Which of the following is not the precursor for the synthesis of Heme?

a) Glycine
b) Succinyl CoA
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

4) Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme for the synthesis of heme?

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

5) The synthesis of heme involves both cytosolic and mitochondrial cellular compartment. Which of the following enzyme-catalyzed reaction does not occur in the cytosol?

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

6) Lead positioning causes the increases the accumulation and urinary excretion of coproporphyrin III and ALA in the urine. Which of the following enzyme is inhibited by lead metal?

a) ALA synthase and Protoporphyrin oxidase
b) ALA synthase and Ferrochelatase
c) ALA dehydratase and Protoporphyrin oxidase
d) ALA dehydratase and Ferrochelatase

7) The heme, hematin and Cytochrome P450 represses the synthesis of the following enzyme thereby reducing heme synthesis.

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

8) Which of the following intermediate of the heme synthetic pathway is water-insoluble and excreted via feces via biliary tract?

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid
b) Porphobilinogen
c) Uroporphyrinogen
d) Protoporphyrin

9) The porphyrias are a group of metabolic disorders that result from partial deficiencies of the enzyme of the heme biosynthetic pathway. The porphyria may be classified as acute and nonacute. Which of the following porphyria is not acute type? 

a) Acute intermittent porphyria
b) Hereditary coproporphyria
c) Variegate porphyria
d) Porphyria cutanea tarda

10) Identify porphyria that does not have accumulation and increased excretion of delta-aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen among the following:

a) Acute intermittent porphyria
b) Hereditary coproporphyria
c) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
d) Variegate porphyria

11) Porphyria Cutanea Tarda (PCT) is the most common porphyria characterized by photosensitivity, skin lesions. Which of the following statement is false regarding PCT

a) PCT is caused by the deficiency of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase enzyme
b) Accumulation of photo-sensitizers such as uroporphyrinogen and carboxyl-substituted porphyrinogen
c) Accumulation of ALA (delta-aminolevulinic acid) and PBG (porphobilinogen)
d) None of the above

12) Which of the following is the most sensitive method for the measurement of porphobilinogen?

a) Colorimetric Ehrlich's reaction method
d) Ion exchange chromatography based method
c) HPLC coupled MS
d) Spectral analysis of porphobilinogen

13) All of the porphyrias are inherited in autosomal dominant fashion except the following two autosomal recessive conditions 

a) ALA synthase deficiency
b) ALA dehydratase deficiency
c) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
d) Hereditary coproporphyria

14) The enzyme deficient in erythropoietic protoporphyria is 

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

15) The intravenous administration of hemin is required for reducing symptoms during acute porphyria attacks. The hemin decreased the  gene synthesis of the following enzyme

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

Answers
1-d) All of the above
2-c) Liver
3-d) None of the above
4-a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase
5- b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
6-d) ALA dehydratase and Ferrochelatase
7)- a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
8)-d) Protoporphyrin
9)-d) Porphyria cutanea tarda
10)- c) Congenital Erythropoietic porphyria
11)-c) Accumulation of ALA (delta-aminolevulinic acid) and PBG (porphobilinogen)
12) -c) HPLC coupled MS
13)- b) ALA dehydratase deficiency & c) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
14)-d) Ferrochelatase
15-a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1


Heme Synthesis & Porphyria (Diagram NEMJ)

MCQ on Heme synthesis & Related Inherited Disease (Porphyria) MCQ on Heme synthesis & Related Inherited Disease (Porphyria) Reviewed by Biotechnology on August 27, 2019 Rating: 5

Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV/ AIDS)

August 27, 2019

Multiple Choice Question on Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV/AIDS)


1) There are two types of HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) viruses- HIV 1 & HIV 2. HIV 1 virus is found worldwide.  HIV 2 (a less pathogenic than HIV 1) is mainly found in which part of the world?

a) Asia
b) West Africa
c) Northern Europe
b) North America

2) Which of the following is an important molecule present in the outer membrane of the HIV that helps to enter the host cell?

a) Polysaccharides
b) Glycoproteins
c) Proteins
d) Lipopoysaccharides


3) All of the following are the examples of the route through which HIV can be transmitted from one person to another, EXCEPT?

a) Unprotected sexual contact with an infected person
b) From infected mother to the fetus
c) From the mosquito bite carrying the virus
d) Exposure to contaminated blood and blood products

4) HIV belongs to the which of the following genus member of the virus?

a) Orthomyxovirus
b) Lentivirus
c) Parvovirus
d) Reovirus


5) All of the following statements regarding HIV infection in human is true, EXCEPT?

a) Person once infected will remain infected for life if untreated
b) Monocytes and macrophages are the major reservoir of the virus
c) The opportunistic infections in AIDS is mainly due to the loss of cell-mediated immunity
d) The center of the virus has the main antigenic properties

6) Which of the following enzyme is required for viral replication and plays a critical role in the pathogenesis of HIV infection?

a) RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase II
d) Reverse transcriptase

7) The envelope protein gp120 (Glycoprotein 120) is required for the attachment of the HIV virus to CD 4 receptor of target host cells. Identify the immune cells that consist of CD 4 receptors? 

a) T helper cells
b) Monocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Dendritic cells

8) Identify the chemokine receptor cell present in the host macrophages that helps in the primary attachment of HIV?

a) CxCR 4
b) CCR5
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

9) Which of the following is an important HIV antigen in determining the early detection of HIV infection?

a) p24
b) gp120
c) Pol gene
d) Gp120

10) In many patients, the chronic HIV infection progresses to AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) that is characterized by multiple opportunistic infections. Which of the following common bacterial infections is seen globally in HIV infected patients?

a) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
b) Tuberculosis
c) Candidiasis
d) Toxoplasmosis


11) When was the first human AIDS case reported in the USA?

a) 1990
b) 1982
c) 1981
d) 1991

12) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) is a combination therapy that includes protease inhibitor class drugs like indinavir and saquinavir and other drugs prescribed for HIV infection. What is the main goal of these drugs?

a) Inhibitors of the enzyme protease
b) Inhibits viral replication and viral load
c) Prevents the interaction between the virus and the coreceptor
d) All of the above

13) All of the following are the examples of a biological specimen which can be taken for the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection, EXCEPT?

a) Blood
b) Saliva with the presence of blood
c) Genital secretions
d) Urine with no presence of blood

14) Which of the following drug can significantly reduce the transmission of HIV infection from mother to baby?

a) Acyclovir
b) Zidovudine
c) Ceftriaxone
d) None of the above

15) All of the following are the current preventive methods of HIV infection, EXCEPT?

a) Safe and protected sex
b) Use of available vaccines
c) Use of sterile injection needles
d) All of the above



Multiple Choice Answers
1)- b) West Africa
2)- b) Glycoprotein
3)- c) From the mosquito bite carrying the virus
4)- b) Lentivirus
5)- d) The center of the virus has the main antigenic properties
6)- d) Reverse transcriptase
7)- a) T helper cells
8)- b) CCR5
9)- a) p24
10)- b) Tuberculosis
11)- c) 1981
12)- b) Inhibits viral replication and viral load
13)- d) Urine with no presence of blood
14)- b) Zidovudine
15)- b) Use of available vaccines 
Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV/ AIDS) Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV/ AIDS) Reviewed by Biotechnology on August 27, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics: MCQ

June 22, 2019


Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics
Multiple Choice Question

1) Osmotic diuretics are contraindicated in

a) Increased intracranial tension
b) Increased intraocular tension
c) Established acute renal failure
d) Poisonings

2) The antidiuretic action of Desmopressin is due to activation of:

a) V 1a receptor
b) V 2 receptor
c) V 1b receptor
d) V1 and V2 receptor

3) Furosemide increases the excretion of all of the followings except

a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Uric acid
d) Calcium and magnesium


4) A group of college students is planning a mountain climbing trip. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for them to take to prevent mountain sickness?

a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone

5) Drug of choice for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is:

a) Lypressin
b) Terlipressin
c) Desmopressin
d) Vasopressin


6) Which of the following agent is most effective in the treatment of hepatic edema?

a) Chlorthalidone
b) Triamterene
c) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone

7) All of the following drugs are nephrotoxic except

a) Amphotericin
b) Lithium
c) Metronidazole
d) Cocaine

8) The dose related toxicity of loop diuretics is:

a) Allergic reaction
b) Deafness
c) Hypomagnesemia
d) Hyperuricemia

9) Aminoglycosides induced nephrotoxicity is in the order of

a) Gentamicin> Tobramycin>Amikacin>Netilmicin> Streptomycin
b) Streptomycin > Tobramycin >Amikacin>Netilmicin > Gentamicin
c) Gentamicin > Amikacin > Netilmicin > Tobramycin > Streptomycin
d) Tobramycin > Amikacin>Netilmicin> Streptomycin > Gentamicin

10) All of the followings are non-renal actions of anti-diuretic hormone except

a) a neurotransmitter in central nervous system
b) promotes haemostasis
c) is a potent vasoconstrictor
d) increases the permeability of the membrane to water

11) Which of the following drugs is used for urinary incontinence? 

a) Flavoxate
b) Sodium citrate
c) Trimethoprim
d) Phenazopyridine

12) Concurrent use of Spironolactone & ACE inhibitors should be avoided because of danger of –

a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypokalemia
d) Hypoglycemia


13) Following diuretic promotes calcium reabsorption:

a) Spironolactone
b) Chlorothiazide
c) Furosemide
d) Ethacrynic acid

14) Following are the uses of Amiloride except

a) Adjunct to K+ wasting diuretics
b) Lithium induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
c) Congestive heart failure
d) a and b
e) a, b and c

15) Which one of the following diuretics is effective in severe renal failure? 

a) Loop diuretics
b) K+ sparing diuretics
c) Thiazides
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

16) Following statements about osmotic diuretics is true except

a) Mannitol gets filtered in glomerulus, but cannot be reabsorbed
b) To maintain osmotic balance, water is retained in the urine
c) Their presence leads to an increase in the osmolarity of the filtrate
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

17) Which of the following drug and its mechanism of action is not correct?

a) Acetazolamide: epithelial sodium channel blockers
b) Spironolactone: potassium sparing diuretics
c) Hydrochlorothiazide: inhibit sodium chloride symporter
d) Bumetanide: inhibits NA+/K+/2Cl- cotransport

18) Based on V2 receptor, followings are the therapeutic uses of vasopressin except:

a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Bedwetting in children
c) Bleeding esophageal varices
d) Hemophilia

19) Which of the following is a synthetic prodrug of vasopressin?

a) Terlipressin
b) Lypressin
c) Desmopressin
d) None of the above

20) Long term use of loop diuretics causes ………………….

a) Cirrhosis of liver
b) Deafness
c) Distal nephron hypertrophy
d) Renal insufficiency

Multiple Choice Answers
1-c) Established acute renal failure
2-b) V 2 receptor
3-c) Uric acid
4-a) Acetazolamide
5-c) Desmopressin
6-d) Spironolactone
7-c) Metronidazole 
8-b) Deafness
9-a) Gentamicin> Tobramycin>Amikacin>Netilmicin> Streptomycin
10-d) increases the permeability of the membrane to water 
11-a) Flavoxate
12-b) Hyperkalemia
13-b) Chlorothiazide
14-d) a and b
15-a) Loop diuretics
16-d) All of the above
17-a) Acetazolamide: epithelial sodium channel blockers
18)-c) Bleeding esophageal varices 
19-a) Terlipressin 
20-c) Distal nephron hypertrophy
Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics: MCQ Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics: MCQ Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes: MCQs

June 22, 2019

Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes

Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following drug and its mechanism of action is incorrect?

a) Sulfonylureas: promotes insulin release from the β cells of pancreas
b) Biguanides: improves target cell response to insulin without increasing pancreatic insulin secretion
c) Thiazolidinediones: promotes insulin release from the β cells of pancreas
d) α-glucosidase inhibitors: reversible inhibition of membrane bound α glucosidase in the intestine

2) Followings are the side effects of insulin except

a) Lipodystrophy
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Local injection site reactions
d) Anorexia

3) Following statements about type I diabetes are/is true except:

a) Shows classic symptoms of insulin deficiency as polydipsia, polyphagia, polyuria
b) Age of onset is commonly over 35 years of age
c) Obesity is usually present
d) Absolute deficiency of insulin caused by destroyed β cells
e) a, c and d
f) a and d

4) In case of heart failure with history of Type II diabetes, which of the following drugs would be a poor choice in controlling diabetes?

a) Glipizide
b) Pioglitazone
c) Metformin
d) Acarbose

5) Which of the following antidiabetic agent is least likely to cause hypoglycemia?

a) Metformin
b) Chlorpropamide
c) Insulin
d) Glyburide

6) Which of the following statement about insulin administration is incorrect?

a) Insulin is degraded in gastrointestinal tract if taken orally
b) In a hyperglycemic emergency, regular insulin is injected intravenously
c) Insulin is administered by intramuscular injection
d) Insulin is administered by subcutaneous injection

7) Following are the drugs that may reduce the effects of sulfonylureas except

a) Sulfonamides
b) Atypical antipsychotics
c) Corticosteroids
d) Diuretics

8) Which effect on glucose metabolism is exerted by Metformin?

a) Reduction in hepatic glucose output
b) Promotes insulin secretion
c) Increases hepatic glucose uptake
d) All of the above

9) What is the mechanism of action of Pioglitazone?

a) Increase release of endogenous insulin
b) Increase Hepatic gluconeogenesis
c) Increase target tissue sensitivity to insulin
d) Decrease intestinal absorption of glucose

10) Symptoms of hypothyroidism include all of the following except

a) Bradycardia
b) Mental slowing
c) Poor resistance to heat
d) Physical slowing

11) Goitrogens produce all of the following effects except

a) Suppress T3 & T4 secretion
b) Increase TSH levels
c) Goiter
d) Destroy thyroid tissue

12) Metyrapone is useful in testing the endocrine function of the

a) α cells of pancreatic islets
b) β cells of pancreatic islets
c) Neurohypophysis
d) Pituitary adrenal axis

13) Toxic effect of corticosteroids includes all of the following except

a) Hypoglycemia
b) Osteoporosis
c) Growth inhibition
d) Cushing’s syndrome

14) All of the following are useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia except

a) Calcitonin
b) Glucocorticoids
c) Vitamin D
d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate

15) The mechanism of action of Methimazole is

a) Inhibition of iodination of iodide
b) Inhibition of thyroid perioxidase
c) Inhibition of coupling of iodotyrosines
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

16) Which of the following adrenal steroids has the lowest mineralocorticoid activity?

a) Prednisolone
b) Hydrocortisone
c) Prednisone
d) Dexamethasone

17) Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of adrenal steroids?

a) Acute attack of bronchial asthma
b) Angina pectoris
c) Addison’s disease
d) Acute lymphatic leukemia

18) All of the followings are the features of Cushing’s syndrome except:

a) Buffalo torso
b) Moon face
c) Acne and hirsutism
d) All of the above

19) The mechanism of action of 131I is:

a) Inhibition of its own transport
b) Inhibition of iodine trapping
c) Thyroid cells necrosis without damaging neighboring cells
d) Inhibition of organification of iodine

20) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Ca2+ is absorbed by facilitated diffusion in intestine
b) Calcitonin decreases Ca2+ reabsorption
c) Phenytoin increases Ca2+ absorption
d) Ca2+ absorption is interfered by oxalates


Multiple Choice Answers
1-c) Thiazolidinediones: promotes insulin release from the β cells of pancreas 
2-d) Anorexia
3-f) a and d 
4-b) Pioglitazone 
5-a) Metformin 
6-c) Insulin is administered by intramuscular injection 
7-a) Metformin 
6-c) Insulin is administered by intramuscular injection 
7-a) Sulfonamides
8-a) Reduction in hepatic glucose output 
9)-c) Increase target tissue sensitivity to insulin
10-d) Destroy thyroid tissue 
12-d) Pituitary adrenal axis
13-a) Hypoglycemia
14-c) Vitamin D
15-d) All of the above
16-d) Dexamethasone
17-b) Angina pectoris
18-d) All of the above
19-c) Thyroid cells necrosis without damaging neighboring cells
20-b) Calcitonin decreases Ca2+ reabsorption 

Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes: MCQs Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes: MCQs Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System: MCQ

June 16, 2019
Cardiovascular system Multiple Choice Questions

Cardiovascular system
Multiple Choice Questions


1. All of the following agents are high ceiling diuretics except:


a. Furosemide
b. Amiloride
c. Torsemide
d. Ethacrynic acid

2. Which of the following statement is true for ACE inhibitors?

a. ACE inhibitors reduce both cardiac preload and afterload, thereby decreasing cardiac work
b. ACE inhibitors increase both angiotensin II and bradykinin levels
c. ACE inhibitors decrease both angiotensin II and bradykinin levels
d. None of the above

3. Choose the correct antihypertensive agents and their mechanism of action:

a. Furosemide: inhibition of epithelial sodium transport at the late distal and collecting ducts
b. Losartan: increases aldosterone secretion causing sodium and water retention
c. Clonidine: acts centrally as an a2 agonist causing inhibition of sympathetic vasomotor center
d. a and c
e. a, b and c

4. Which of the following is a direct renin inhibitor?

a. Olmesartan
b. Eplerenone
c. Aliskiren
d. None of the above

5. Choose the cardioselective b-adrenergic blockers.

a. Atenolol
b. Propranolol
c. Betaxolol
d. Carteolol

6. The cellular action of calcium channel blockers is

a. They inhibit Na + - Ca 2+ exchanger in cardiac and smooth muscles
b. They interact with the L-type voltage-gated channel
c. Their interaction with the sodium pump results in the inhibition of calcium transport
d. Their interaction with the membrane phospholipids results in a nonselective decrease in ion transport

7. Followings are the pharmacological management of myocardial infarction to prevent future attacks

a. Platelet inhibitors
b. b-blockers
c. Control of hyperlipidemia
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

8. The cellular mechanism of action of digoxin is:

a. Inhibition of cAMP synthesis
b. Inhibition of b-adrenergic stimulation
c. Inhibition of ATP degradation
d. Inhibition of Na + K + ATPase

9. Which of the following drugs provide significant relaxation of smooth muscles of both venules and arterioles?

a. Nifedipine
b. Diazoxide
c. Sodium nitroprusside
d. Minoxidil

10. Which of the following drugs is not used for the management of congestive heart failure?

a. Enalapril
b. Nifedipine
c. Propranolol
d. Digoxin

11. Which of the following class of anti-arrhythmic drug suppresses abnormal automaticity and permit the sinoatrial node to again assume the role of a dominant pacemaker?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

12. The anticoagulant effect of heparin is explained by

a. Chelation of calcium ion
b. Reduction of vitamin k dependent factor
c. Activation of antithrombin III
d. Activation of plasmin

13. If quinidine and digoxin are administered concurrently, what effect does quinidine have on digoxin?

a. Plasma concentration of digoxin is increased
b. Absorption of digoxin from the gastrointestinal tract is decreased
c. Effect of digoxin on the AV node is antagonized
d. Metabolism of digoxin is prevented

14. The specific antidote for Heparin is;

a. Pralidoxime
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Vitamin K
d. EDTA

15. The therapeutic benefit of propranolol in angina is believed to be primarily due to:

a. Reduced production of catecholamines
b. A decreased requirement of myocardial oxygen
c. Increased sensitivity to catecholamines
d. Increased peripheral resistance

16. Low concentration of nitrates cause dilation of:

a. Large arteries
b. Veins
c. Precapillary sphincters
d. Arterioles

17. Following is the mechanism of action of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

a. Competitive inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
b. Reduction in endogenous cholesterol synthesis
c. Up-regulation of LDL receptor activity
d. None of above
e. All of the above

18. Nicotinic acid is;

a. Lipid modifying agent
b. Thrombolytic
c. Anticoagulant
d. Antiplatelet agent

19. A 46-year old man has been successfully treated with a thiazide diuretic for the last 5 years. Over the last 4 months, his diastolic pressure has steadily increased, and he has been kept on additional antihypertensive medication. He complains of several instances of being unable to achieve an erection and that he is no longer able to complete 3 sets of tennis. Which of the following second antihypertensive drug is most likely to cause the above mentioned complains?

a. Metoprolol
b. Captopril
c. Losartan
d. Nifedipine

20. Which of the following drug is a K+ channel opener?

a. Amiodarone
b. Nicorandil
c. Nifedipine
d. Captopril

Multiple Choice Answers
1-d) Ethacrynic acid
2- a) ACE inhibitors reduce both cardiac preload and afterload, thereby decreasing cardiac work
3- d)
4-c) Aliskiren
5-a) Atenolol
6-b) They interact with the L-type voltage-gated channel
7-d) All of the above
8-d) Inhibition of Na + K + ATPase
9-c) Sodium nitroprusside
10-b) Nifedipine
11-a) Class I
12-c) Activation of antithrombin III
13-a) Plasma concentration of digoxin is increased
14-b) Protamine sulfate
15-b) Decreased requirement of myocardial oxygen
16-b) Veins
17-e) All of the above
18-a) Lipid modifying agent
19-a) Metoprolol
20-b) Nicorandil


Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System: MCQ Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System: MCQ Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 16, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-I

June 16, 2019

Antimicrobials: Cell wall synthesis and protein synthesis inhibitorsMultiple Choice Questions


1) Which of the following combination is correct?

a) Penicillin: inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Cephalosporin: inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Aminoglycoside: inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d) Fluoroquinolones: inhibition of cell wall synthesis

2) What is a common feature among the following group of antibiotics like Penicillin, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, and Monobactams?

a) They all bind penicillin-binding protein-1 and inhibit their transpeptidase activity
b) They all have a β-lactam ring as a part of their biological interaction
c) None of them can penetrate to the central nervous system
d) All of the above

3) Amoxycillin is similar to Ampicillin in different respects except in ………………

a) Antibacterial spectrum
b) Penicillinase resistance
c) Hypersensitivity reaction
d) Oral absorption

4) Following statement about Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam and Tazobactam are true except:

a) Antibiotic activity of beta-lactamases is inhibited by beta-lactamases
b) Inhibits beta-lactamases and can be administered with penicillinase sensitive penicillins
c) Co-administered with carbapenems to block carbapenemase inactivation
d) Typically co-administered with the cephamycin

5) The following cephalosporin is associated with bleeding complications

a) Cefotaxime
b) Cefuroxime
c) Cefotetan
d) Cefazolin

6) A 26-year old male returns home from a holiday and complains of three days of dysuria and a purulent urethral discharge. He is diagnosed to be a case of gonorrhea. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment?

a) Ceftriaxone IM
b) Streptomycin
c) Gentamicin
d) Vancomycin IV

7) Redman syndrome is toxicity associated with

a) Amoxicillin
b) Daptomycin
c) Linezolid
d) Vancomycin

8) Cilastatin is given along with Imipenem for the following reason:

a) Inhibition of beta-lactamases thus preventing inactivation of Imipenem
b) Blocking of bacterial transpeptidase and preventing degradation of Imipenem
c) Decreasing hydrolysis of Imipenem
d) Inhibition of renal tubular dipeptidase thus preventing hydrolysis of Imipenem by renal tubular dipeptidase

9) A 72 years old man who was administered Penicillin intravenously developed generalized urticaria, swelling of lips, hypotension, and bronchospasm within 5 minutes. The first choice of treatment is to administer

a) High dose hydrocortisone tablet
b) Chlorpheniramine injection
c) Adrenaline injection
d) Isoprenaline injection

10) Followings are the penicillinase-resistant penicillin except:

a) Carbenicillin
b) Methicillin
c) Nafcillin
d) Cloxacillin

11) Which of the following antibiotic acts as a protein synthesis inhibitor?

a) Erythromycin, Chloramphenicol
b) Vancomycin, Cephamycin
c) Gentamicin, Tetracycline
d) Options a and c
e) Options b and c

12) Ototoxicity, vestibulo-toxic impairment, and nephrotoxicity are seen as major adverse effects of

a) Aminoglycosides
b) Macrolides
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) All of the above

13) Gray baby syndrome in neonates can be caused by

a) Penicillin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Quinolones
d) Sulphonamides

14) Fanconi syndrome can be caused by

a) Tetracycline
b) Quinolones
c) Sulphonamide
d) Penicillin

15) Following cephalosporins can cross the blood-brain barrier and therefore can be used in the treatment of meningitis except

a) Ceftazidime
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Cefotaxime
d) Cefixime

16) Random use of broad-spectrum antibiotic is contraindicated. They

a) Are extremely nephrotoxic
b) Can produce dependency and psychogenic symptoms
c) Can induce anaphylactoid reactions
d) Can interfere with indigenous microbiota

17) All of the followings are the adverse effects of tetracycline except:

a) Ototoxicity
b) Phototoxicity
c) Fatal hepatotoxicity
d) Yellow discoloration of teeth

18) Which of the following group of antibiotics show bacteriostatic action?

a) Fluoroquinolones
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Macrolides
d) Monobactams

19) Which of the following group of antibiotics in accordance with structure and mode of action to penicillin?

a) Chloramphenicol
b) Polymyxins
c) Cycloserines
d) Cephalosporins



1-a) Penicillin: inhibition of cell wall synthesis 
2-b) They all have a β-lactam ring as a part of their biological interaction
3-d) Oral absorption
4-b) Inhibits beta-lactamases and can be administered with penicillinase sensitive penicillins
5-c) Cefotetan
6-a) Ceftriaxone IM
7-d) Vancomycin
8-d) Inhibition of renal tubular dipeptidase thus preventing hydrolysis of Imipenem by renal tubular dipeptidase
9-b) Chlorpheniramine injection
10-a) Carbenicillin
11-d) Options a and c
12-a) Aminoglycosides
13-b) Chloramphenicol 
14-a) Tetracycline
15-d) Cefixime
16-d) Can interfere with indigenous microbiota
17-a) Ototoxicity
18-c) Macrolides
19-d) Cephalosporins


Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-I Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-I Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 16, 2019 Rating: 5
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