BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCES

Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Hepatitis viruses, infection and transmission

Biotechnology September 12, 2019

Multiple Choice Question of Hepatitis viruses, types, infection and transmission

1) Which of the following organ is primarily infected by Hepatitis viruses?

a) Intestines
b) Gall bladder
c) Stomach
d) Liver

2) All of the following are the type RNA virus, EXCEPT?

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis D

3) Which of the following virus is NOT transmitted through the parenteral route?

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Hepatitis D

4) Hepatitis A virus (HAV) belongs to which of the following family of viruses?

a) Hepadnaviridae
b) Hepeviridae
c) Picornaviridae
d) Flaviviridae

5) All of the following are the important structural characteristics of the Hepatitis B virus (HBV) EXCEPT?

a) The size of the virus is 42 nm in diameter
b) The envelope consists of surface antigen (HBsAg) and lipid
c) Consists of the single-stranded RNA genome
d) The mode of transmission is parenteral

6) All of the following statements regarding HBV infection is true, EXCEPT?

a) Acute liver infection is subclinical in about 70 percent
b) Chronic hepatitis B can lead to cirrhosis and liver cancer
c) Infants born to infected mothers can have this virus
d) Medications are not available for the treatment of the chronic hepatitis B infection

7) Which of the following is the major risk factor for the Hepatitis C virus (HCV)infection in the United States of America?

a) Sexual activity
b) Use of drugs
c) Blood transfusion
d) Tattoos

8) Hepatitis D virus is also known as the delta virus requires HBV to cause infection in people

a) TRUE
b) FALSE

9) Hepatitis E virus (HEV) infection is more commonly found in developing countries which is transmitted mostly through contaminated water, all of the following are the signs and symptoms of HEV, EXCEPT?

a) Blood in the stool
b) Nausea and vomiting
c) Yellowing of the skin
d) Low-grade fever

10) Which of the following statement is true for hepatitis causing viruses HAV, HCV, HDV, and HEV?

a) Transmitted via the fecal-oral route
b) Transmitted via the parenteral route
c) Contain a single-stranded RNA genome
d) Can lead to liver cancer

11) Which of the following group of people are NOT considered in the increased risk of acquiring HAV infections?

a) People traveling to developed countries to developing countries
b) Men having a sexual relationship with other men
c) People working with primates
d) From infectious pregnant women to their babies >

12) A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with abdominal discomfort and vomiting, low grade and fever, the diagnosis was done and is found to be infected with HAV. In a blood sample, IgM antibodies detection confirms the HAV infection, how long after the initial infection these antibodies are found in the blood?

a) 24 hours
b) 3 to 4 days
c) 1 to 2 weeks
d) 12 hours

13) All of the following statements are true for the diagnosis of HBV infection, EXCEPT?

a) Tests for the detection of elevated liver enzymes should be done
b) Serological tests to detect
c) Liver function test- bilirubin
d) Glucose challenge test

14) Which of the following statements about HDV is NOT correct?

a) RNA virus
b) Transmitted by parenteral route
c) Can replicate only when in a cell that is also infected by HBV
d) None of the above

15) According to the World Health Organization recent survey, about what percentage of people know they are living with Hepatitis infection?

a) 75 %
b) >5 %
c) 25 %
d) 50 %

16) What are the other risk factors that can cause hepatitis infection apart from virus, Select all the correct answers?

a) Abuse of drugs
b) High alcohol consumption
c) Fatty liver
d) Autoimmune infection

17) Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the vaccination of HAV, HBV, and HCV?

a) Hepatitis A vaccination should be started when kids are 1 year old
b) Newborns from infected mothers are only required to get the HBV vaccine
c) There is no vaccine available for HCV
d) All of the above

18) HEV can cause epidemics of jaundice, more commonly seen in developing countries. All of the following are the most common sources of HEV, EXCEPT?

a) Contaminated water
b) Raw or undercooked pork
c) Contaminated blood products
d) A sexual relationship with an infected individual

19) All of the following statements about the HEV is true, EXCEPT?

a) Transmitted by the fecal-oral route
b) It is a non-enveloped virus
c) The major cause of hepatitis liver cancer
d) Found in rodents and pigs

20) Hepatitis C infection in the USA is increasing among young adults in the USA, there is more than 100 % increase since 2005 particularly seen among young adults. Which of the following is the most common cause of this infection?

a) Injecting drug use
b) Sexual relation
c) Baby born to an infectious mother
d) Sharing razors and toothbrushes

Answers
1) d) Liver >
2) b) Hepatitis B >
3) a) Hepatitis A >
4) c) Picornaviridae >
5) c) Consists of single-stranded RNA genome >
6) d) Medications are not available for the treatment of the chronic hepatitis B infection >
7) c) Blood transfusion >
8) a) TRUE >
9) a) Blood in the stool >
10) c) Contain a single-stranded RNA genome >
11) d) From infectious pregnant women to their babies >
12) c)1 to 2 weeks >
13) d) Glucose challenge test >
14) d) None of the above >
15) b) >5 % >
16) All options above
17) b) Newborns from infected mothers are only required to get the HBV vaccine
18) d) A sexual relationship with the infected individual
19) c) The major cause of hepatitis liver cancer
20) a) Injecting drug use

Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Hepatitis viruses, infection and transmission

Reviewed by Biotechnology on September 12, 2019 Rating: 5

MCQ on Heme synthesis & Related Inherited Disease (Porphyria)

Biotechnology August 27, 2019

Multiple Choice Question on Heme synthesis & Related Inherited Disease (Porphyria)

1) Heme is a tetrapyrrole structure consisting of Fe+2 ions in the center of the porphyrin ring. Which of the following proteins consist of heme?

a) Myoglobin

b) Hemoglobin

c) Cytochrome

d) All of the above

2) Besides erythroid precursor cells, which of the following is the site for the synthesis of heme?

a) Kidney

b) Spleen

c) Liver

d) Heart

3) Which of the following is not the precursor for the synthesis of Heme?

a) Glycine

b) Succinyl CoA

c) Both of the above

d) None of the above

4) Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme for the synthesis of heme?

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

5) The synthesis of heme involves both cytosolic and mitochondrial cellular compartment. Which of the following enzyme-catalyzed reaction does not occur in the cytosol?

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

6) Lead positioning causes the increases the accumulation and urinary excretion of coproporphyrin III and ALA in the urine. Which of the following enzyme is inhibited by lead metal?

a) ALA synthase and Protoporphyrin oxidase
b) ALA synthase and Ferrochelatase
c) ALA dehydratase and Protoporphyrin oxidase
d) ALA dehydratase and Ferrochelatase

7) The heme, hematin and Cytochrome P450 represses the synthesis of the following enzyme thereby reducing heme synthesis.

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

8) Which of the following intermediate of the heme synthetic pathway is water-insoluble and excreted via feces via biliary tract?

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid
b) Porphobilinogen
c) Uroporphyrinogen
d) Protoporphyrin

9) The porphyrias are a group of metabolic disorders that result from partial deficiencies of the enzyme of the heme biosynthetic pathway. The porphyria may be classified as acute and nonacute. Which of the following porphyria is not acute type?

a) Acute intermittent porphyria
b) Hereditary coproporphyria
c) Variegate porphyria
d) Porphyria cutanea tarda

10) Identify porphyria that does not have accumulation and increased excretion of delta-aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen among the following:

a) Acute intermittent porphyria
b) Hereditary coproporphyria
c) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
d) Variegate porphyria

11) Porphyria Cutanea Tarda (PCT) is the most common porphyria characterized by photosensitivity, skin lesions. Which of the following statement is false regarding PCT

a) PCT is caused by the deficiency of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase enzyme
b) Accumulation of photo-sensitizers such as uroporphyrinogen and carboxyl-substituted porphyrinogen
c) Accumulation of ALA (delta-aminolevulinic acid) and PBG (porphobilinogen)
d) None of the above

12) Which of the following is the most sensitive method for the measurement of porphobilinogen?

a) Colorimetric Ehrlich's reaction method
d) Ion exchange chromatography based method
c) HPLC coupled MS
d) Spectral analysis of porphobilinogen

13) All of the porphyrias are inherited in autosomal dominant fashion except the following two autosomal recessive conditions

a) ALA synthase deficiency
b) ALA dehydratase deficiency
c) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
d) Hereditary coproporphyria

14) The enzyme deficient in erythropoietic protoporphyria is

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

15) The intravenous administration of hemin is required for reducing symptoms during acute porphyria attacks. The hemin decreased the gene synthesis of the following enzyme

a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Ferrochelatase

Answers
1-d) All of the above
2-c) Liver
3-d) None of the above
4-a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase
5- b) Uroporphyrinogen synthase III
6-d) ALA dehydratase and Ferrochelatase
7)- a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1
8)-d) Protoporphyrin
9)-d) Porphyria cutanea tarda
10)- c) Congenital Erythropoietic porphyria
11)-c) Accumulation of ALA (delta-aminolevulinic acid) and PBG (porphobilinogen)
12) -c) HPLC coupled MS
13)- b) ALA dehydratase deficiency & c) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
14)-d) Ferrochelatase
15-a) delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase 1

Heme Synthesis & Porphyria (Diagram NEMJ)

MCQ on Heme synthesis & Related Inherited Disease (Porphyria)

Reviewed by Biotechnology on August 27, 2019 Rating: 5

Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV/ AIDS)

Biotechnology August 27, 2019

Multiple Choice Question on Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV/AIDS)

1) There are two types of HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) viruses- HIV 1 & HIV 2. HIV 1 virus is found worldwide. HIV 2 (a less pathogenic than HIV 1) is mainly found in which part of the world?

a) Asia
b) West Africa
c) Northern Europe
b) North America

2) Which of the following is an important molecule present in the outer membrane of the HIV that helps to enter the host cell?

a) Polysaccharides
b) Glycoproteins
c) Proteins
d) Lipopoysaccharides

3) All of the following are the examples of the route through which HIV can be transmitted from one person to another, EXCEPT?

a) Unprotected sexual contact with an infected person
b) From infected mother to the fetus
c) From the mosquito bite carrying the virus
d) Exposure to contaminated blood and blood products

4) HIV belongs to the which of the following genus member of the virus?

a) Orthomyxovirus
b) Lentivirus
c) Parvovirus
d) Reovirus

5) All of the following statements regarding HIV infection in human is true, EXCEPT?

a) Person once infected will remain infected for life if untreated
b) Monocytes and macrophages are the major reservoir of the virus
c) The opportunistic infections in AIDS is mainly due to the loss of cell-mediated immunity
d) The center of the virus has the main antigenic properties

6) Which of the following enzyme is required for viral replication and plays a critical role in the pathogenesis of HIV infection?

a) RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase II
d) Reverse transcriptase

7) The envelope protein gp120 (Glycoprotein 120) is required for the attachment of the HIV virus to CD 4 receptor of target host cells. Identify the immune cells that consist of CD 4 receptors?

a) T helper cells
b) Monocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Dendritic cells

8) Identify the chemokine receptor cell present in the host macrophages that helps in the primary attachment of HIV?

a) CxCR 4
b) CCR5
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

9) Which of the following is an important HIV antigen in determining the early detection of HIV infection?

a) p24
b) gp120
c) Pol gene
d) Gp120

10) In many patients, the chronic HIV infection progresses to AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) that is characterized by multiple opportunistic infections. Which of the following common bacterial infections is seen globally in HIV infected patients?

a) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
b) Tuberculosis
c) Candidiasis
d) Toxoplasmosis

11) When was the first human AIDS case reported in the USA?

a) 1990
b) 1982
c) 1981
d) 1991

12) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) is a combination therapy that includes protease inhibitor class drugs like indinavir and saquinavir and other drugs prescribed for HIV infection. What is the main goal of these drugs?

a) Inhibitors of the enzyme protease
b) Inhibits viral replication and viral load
c) Prevents the interaction between the virus and the coreceptor
d) All of the above

13) All of the following are the examples of a biological specimen which can be taken for the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection, EXCEPT?

a) Blood
b) Saliva with the presence of blood
c) Genital secretions
d) Urine with no presence of blood

14) Which of the following drug can significantly reduce the transmission of HIV infection from mother to baby?

a) Acyclovir
b) Zidovudine
c) Ceftriaxone
d) None of the above

15) All of the following are the current preventive methods of HIV infection, EXCEPT?

a) Safe and protected sex
b) Use of available vaccines
c) Use of sterile injection needles
d) All of the above

Multiple Choice Answers
1)- b) West Africa
2)- b) Glycoprotein
3)- c) From the mosquito bite carrying the virus
4)- b) Lentivirus
5)- d) The center of the virus has the main antigenic properties
6)- d) Reverse transcriptase
7)- a) T helper cells
8)- b) CCR5
9)- a) p24
10)- b) Tuberculosis
11)- c) 1981
12)- b) Inhibits viral replication and viral load
13)- d) Urine with no presence of blood
14)- b) Zidovudine
15)- b) Use of available vaccines

Medical Microbiology: MCQ on Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV/ AIDS)

Reviewed by Biotechnology on August 27, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics: MCQ

Biotechnology June 22, 2019

Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics

Multiple Choice Question

1) Osmotic diuretics are contraindicated in

a) Increased intracranial tension
b) Increased intraocular tension
c) Established acute renal failure
d) Poisonings

2) The antidiuretic action of Desmopressin is due to activation of:

a) V 1a receptor
b) V 2 receptor
c) V 1b receptor
d) V1 and V2 receptor

3) Furosemide increases the excretion of all of the followings except

a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Uric acid
d) Calcium and magnesium

4) A group of college students is planning a mountain climbing trip. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for them to take to prevent mountain sickness?

a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone

5) Drug of choice for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is:

a) Lypressin
b) Terlipressin
c) Desmopressin
d) Vasopressin

6) Which of the following agent is most effective in the treatment of hepatic edema?

a) Chlorthalidone
b) Triamterene
c) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone

7) All of the following drugs are nephrotoxic except

a) Amphotericin
b) Lithium
c) Metronidazole
d) Cocaine

8) The dose related toxicity of loop diuretics is:

a) Allergic reaction
b) Deafness
c) Hypomagnesemia
d) Hyperuricemia

9) Aminoglycosides induced nephrotoxicity is in the order of

a) Gentamicin> Tobramycin>Amikacin>Netilmicin> Streptomycin
b) Streptomycin > Tobramycin >Amikacin>Netilmicin > Gentamicin
c) Gentamicin > Amikacin > Netilmicin > Tobramycin > Streptomycin
d) Tobramycin > Amikacin>Netilmicin> Streptomycin > Gentamicin

10) All of the followings are non-renal actions of anti-diuretic hormone except

a) a neurotransmitter in central nervous system
b) promotes haemostasis
c) is a potent vasoconstrictor
d) increases the permeability of the membrane to water

11) Which of the following drugs is used for urinary incontinence?

a) Flavoxate
b) Sodium citrate
c) Trimethoprim
d) Phenazopyridine

12) Concurrent use of Spironolactone & ACE inhibitors should be avoided because of danger of –

a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypokalemia
d) Hypoglycemia

13) Following diuretic promotes calcium reabsorption:

a) Spironolactone
b) Chlorothiazide
c) Furosemide
d) Ethacrynic acid

14) Following are the uses of Amiloride except

a) Adjunct to K+ wasting diuretics
b) Lithium induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
c) Congestive heart failure
d) a and b
e) a, b and c

15) Which one of the following diuretics is effective in severe renal failure?

a) Loop diuretics
b) K+ sparing diuretics
c) Thiazides
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

16) Following statements about osmotic diuretics is true except

a) Mannitol gets filtered in glomerulus, but cannot be reabsorbed
b) To maintain osmotic balance, water is retained in the urine
c) Their presence leads to an increase in the osmolarity of the filtrate
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

17) Which of the following drug and its mechanism of action is not correct?

a) Acetazolamide: epithelial sodium channel blockers
b) Spironolactone: potassium sparing diuretics
c) Hydrochlorothiazide: inhibit sodium chloride symporter
d) Bumetanide: inhibits NA+/K+/2Cl- cotransport

18) Based on V2 receptor, followings are the therapeutic uses of vasopressin except:

a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Bedwetting in children
c) Bleeding esophageal varices
d) Hemophilia

19) Which of the following is a synthetic prodrug of vasopressin?

a) Terlipressin
b) Lypressin
c) Desmopressin
d) None of the above

20) Long term use of loop diuretics causes ………………….

a) Cirrhosis of liver
b) Deafness
c) Distal nephron hypertrophy
d) Renal insufficiency

Multiple Choice Answers

1-c) Established acute renal failure

2-b) V 2 receptor

3-c) Uric acid

4-a) Acetazolamide

5-c) Desmopressin

6-d) Spironolactone

7-c) Metronidazole

8-b) Deafness

9-a) Gentamicin> Tobramycin>Amikacin>Netilmicin> Streptomycin

10-d) increases the permeability of the membrane to water

11-a) Flavoxate

12-b) Hyperkalemia

13-b) Chlorothiazide

14-d) a and b

15-a) Loop diuretics

16-d) All of the above

17-a) Acetazolamide: epithelial sodium channel blockers

18)-c) Bleeding esophageal varices

19-a) Terlipressin

20-c) Distal nephron hypertrophy

Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics: MCQ

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes: MCQs

Biotechnology June 22, 2019

Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes

Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following drug and its mechanism of action is incorrect?

a) Sulfonylureas: promotes insulin release from the β cells of pancreas
b) Biguanides: improves target cell response to insulin without increasing pancreatic insulin secretion
c) Thiazolidinediones: promotes insulin release from the β cells of pancreas
d) α-glucosidase inhibitors: reversible inhibition of membrane bound α glucosidase in the intestine

2) Followings are the side effects of insulin except

a) Lipodystrophy
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Local injection site reactions
d) Anorexia

3) Following statements about type I diabetes are/is true except:

a) Shows classic symptoms of insulin deficiency as polydipsia, polyphagia, polyuria
b) Age of onset is commonly over 35 years of age
c) Obesity is usually present
d) Absolute deficiency of insulin caused by destroyed β cells
e) a, c and d
f) a and d

4) In case of heart failure with history of Type II diabetes, which of the following drugs would be a poor choice in controlling diabetes?

a) Glipizide
b) Pioglitazone
c) Metformin
d) Acarbose

5) Which of the following antidiabetic agent is least likely to cause hypoglycemia?

a) Metformin
b) Chlorpropamide
c) Insulin
d) Glyburide

6) Which of the following statement about insulin administration is incorrect?

a) Insulin is degraded in gastrointestinal tract if taken orally
b) In a hyperglycemic emergency, regular insulin is injected intravenously
c) Insulin is administered by intramuscular injection
d) Insulin is administered by subcutaneous injection

7) Following are the drugs that may reduce the effects of sulfonylureas except

a) Sulfonamides
b) Atypical antipsychotics
c) Corticosteroids
d) Diuretics

8) Which effect on glucose metabolism is exerted by Metformin?

a) Reduction in hepatic glucose output
b) Promotes insulin secretion
c) Increases hepatic glucose uptake
d) All of the above

9) What is the mechanism of action of Pioglitazone?

a) Increase release of endogenous insulin
b) Increase Hepatic gluconeogenesis
c) Increase target tissue sensitivity to insulin
d) Decrease intestinal absorption of glucose

10) Symptoms of hypothyroidism include all of the following except

a) Bradycardia
b) Mental slowing
c) Poor resistance to heat
d) Physical slowing

11) Goitrogens produce all of the following effects except

a) Suppress T3 & T4 secretion
b) Increase TSH levels
c) Goiter
d) Destroy thyroid tissue

12) Metyrapone is useful in testing the endocrine function of the

a) α cells of pancreatic islets
b) β cells of pancreatic islets
c) Neurohypophysis
d) Pituitary adrenal axis

13) Toxic effect of corticosteroids includes all of the following except

a) Hypoglycemia
b) Osteoporosis
c) Growth inhibition
d) Cushing’s syndrome

14) All of the following are useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia except

a) Calcitonin
b) Glucocorticoids
c) Vitamin D
d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate

15) The mechanism of action of Methimazole is

a) Inhibition of iodination of iodide
b) Inhibition of thyroid perioxidase
c) Inhibition of coupling of iodotyrosines
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

16) Which of the following adrenal steroids has the lowest mineralocorticoid activity?

a) Prednisolone
b) Hydrocortisone
c) Prednisone
d) Dexamethasone

17) Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of adrenal steroids?

a) Acute attack of bronchial asthma
b) Angina pectoris
c) Addison’s disease
d) Acute lymphatic leukemia

18) All of the followings are the features of Cushing’s syndrome except:

a) Buffalo torso
b) Moon face
c) Acne and hirsutism
d) All of the above

19) The mechanism of action of 131I is:

a) Inhibition of its own transport
b) Inhibition of iodine trapping
c) Thyroid cells necrosis without damaging neighboring cells
d) Inhibition of organification of iodine

20) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Ca2+ is absorbed by facilitated diffusion in intestine
b) Calcitonin decreases Ca2+ reabsorption

c) Phenytoin increases Ca2+ absorption
d) Ca2+ absorption is interfered by oxalates

Multiple Choice Answers

1-c) Thiazolidinediones: promotes insulin release from the β cells of pancreas

2-d) Anorexia

3-f) a and d

4-b) Pioglitazone

5-a) Metformin

6-c) Insulin is administered by intramuscular injection

7-a) Metformin

6-c) Insulin is administered by intramuscular injection

7-a) Sulfonamides

8-a) Reduction in hepatic glucose output

9)-c) Increase target tissue sensitivity to insulin

10-d) Destroy thyroid tissue

12-d) Pituitary adrenal axis

13-a) Hypoglycemia

14-c) Vitamin D

15-d) All of the above

16-d) Dexamethasone

17-b) Angina pectoris

18-d) All of the above

19-c) Thyroid cells necrosis without damaging neighboring cells

20-b) Calcitonin decreases Ca2+ reabsorption

Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes: MCQs

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System: MCQ

Biotechnology June 16, 2019

Cardiovascular system

Multiple Choice Questions

1. All of the following agents are high ceiling diuretics except:

a. Furosemide
b. Amiloride
c. Torsemide
d. Ethacrynic acid

2. Which of the following statement is true for ACE inhibitors?

a. ACE inhibitors reduce both cardiac preload and afterload, thereby decreasing cardiac work
b. ACE inhibitors increase both angiotensin II and bradykinin levels
c. ACE inhibitors decrease both angiotensin II and bradykinin levels
d. None of the above

3. Choose the correct antihypertensive agents and their mechanism of action:

a. Furosemide: inhibition of epithelial sodium transport at the late distal and collecting ducts
b. Losartan: increases aldosterone secretion causing sodium and water retention
c. Clonidine: acts centrally as an a2 agonist causing inhibition of sympathetic vasomotor center
d. a and c
e. a, b and c

4. Which of the following is a direct renin inhibitor?

a. Olmesartan
b. Eplerenone
c. Aliskiren
d. None of the above

5. Choose the cardioselective b-adrenergic blockers.

a. Atenolol
b. Propranolol
c. Betaxolol
d. Carteolol

6. The cellular action of calcium channel blockers is

a. They inhibit Na + - Ca 2+ exchanger in cardiac and smooth muscles
b. They interact with the L-type voltage-gated channel
c. Their interaction with the sodium pump results in the inhibition of calcium transport
d. Their interaction with the membrane phospholipids results in a nonselective decrease in ion transport

7. Followings are the pharmacological management of myocardial infarction to prevent future attacks

a. Platelet inhibitors
b. b-blockers
c. Control of hyperlipidemia
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

8. The cellular mechanism of action of digoxin is:

a. Inhibition of cAMP synthesis
b. Inhibition of b-adrenergic stimulation
c. Inhibition of ATP degradation
d. Inhibition of Na + K + ATPase

9. Which of the following drugs provide significant relaxation of smooth muscles of both venules and arterioles?

a. Nifedipine
b. Diazoxide
c. Sodium nitroprusside
d. Minoxidil

10. Which of the following drugs is not used for the management of congestive heart failure?

a. Enalapril
b. Nifedipine
c. Propranolol
d. Digoxin

11. Which of the following class of anti-arrhythmic drug suppresses abnormal automaticity and permit the sinoatrial node to again assume the role of a dominant pacemaker?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

12. The anticoagulant effect of heparin is explained by

a. Chelation of calcium ion
b. Reduction of vitamin k dependent factor
c. Activation of antithrombin III
d. Activation of plasmin

13. If quinidine and digoxin are administered concurrently, what effect does quinidine have on digoxin?

a. Plasma concentration of digoxin is increased
b. Absorption of digoxin from the gastrointestinal tract is decreased
c. Effect of digoxin on the AV node is antagonized
d. Metabolism of digoxin is prevented

14. The specific antidote for Heparin is;

a. Pralidoxime
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Vitamin K
d. EDTA

15. The therapeutic benefit of propranolol in angina is believed to be primarily due to:

a. Reduced production of catecholamines
b. A decreased requirement of myocardial oxygen
c. Increased sensitivity to catecholamines
d. Increased peripheral resistance

16. Low concentration of nitrates cause dilation of:

a. Large arteries
b. Veins
c. Precapillary sphincters
d. Arterioles

17. Following is the mechanism of action of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

a. Competitive inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
b. Reduction in endogenous cholesterol synthesis
c. Up-regulation of LDL receptor activity
d. None of above
e. All of the above

18. Nicotinic acid is;

a. Lipid modifying agent
b. Thrombolytic
c. Anticoagulant
d. Antiplatelet agent

19. A 46-year old man has been successfully treated with a thiazide diuretic for the last 5 years. Over the last 4 months, his diastolic pressure has steadily increased, and he has been kept on additional antihypertensive medication. He complains of several instances of being unable to achieve an erection and that he is no longer able to complete 3 sets of tennis. Which of the following second antihypertensive drug is most likely to cause the above mentioned complains?

a. Metoprolol
b. Captopril
c. Losartan
d. Nifedipine

Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System: MCQ

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 16, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-I

Biotechnology June 16, 2019

Antimicrobials: Cell wall synthesis and protein synthesis inhibitorsMultiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following combination is correct?

a) Penicillin: inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Cephalosporin: inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Aminoglycoside: inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d) Fluoroquinolones: inhibition of cell wall synthesis

2) What is a common feature among the following group of antibiotics like Penicillin, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, and Monobactams?

a) They all bind penicillin-binding protein-1 and inhibit their transpeptidase activity
b) They all have a β-lactam ring as a part of their biological interaction
c) None of them can penetrate to the central nervous system
d) All of the above

3) Amoxycillin is similar to Ampicillin in different respects except in ………………

a) Antibacterial spectrum
b) Penicillinase resistance
c) Hypersensitivity reaction
d) Oral absorption

4) Following statement about Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam and Tazobactam are true except:

a) Antibiotic activity of beta-lactamases is inhibited by beta-lactamases
b) Inhibits beta-lactamases and can be administered with penicillinase sensitive penicillins
c) Co-administered with carbapenems to block carbapenemase inactivation
d) Typically co-administered with the cephamycin

5) The following cephalosporin is associated with bleeding complications

a) Cefotaxime
b) Cefuroxime
c) Cefotetan
d) Cefazolin

6) A 26-year old male returns home from a holiday and complains of three days of dysuria and a purulent urethral discharge. He is diagnosed to be a case of gonorrhea. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment?

a) Ceftriaxone IM
b) Streptomycin
c) Gentamicin
d) Vancomycin IV

7) Redman syndrome is toxicity associated with

a) Amoxicillin
b) Daptomycin
c) Linezolid
d) Vancomycin

8) Cilastatin is given along with Imipenem for the following reason:

a) Inhibition of beta-lactamases thus preventing inactivation of Imipenem
b) Blocking of bacterial transpeptidase and preventing degradation of Imipenem
c) Decreasing hydrolysis of Imipenem
d) Inhibition of renal tubular dipeptidase thus preventing hydrolysis of Imipenem by renal tubular dipeptidase

9) A 72 years old man who was administered Penicillin intravenously developed generalized urticaria, swelling of lips, hypotension, and bronchospasm within 5 minutes. The first choice of treatment is to administer

a) High dose hydrocortisone tablet
b) Chlorpheniramine injection
c) Adrenaline injection
d) Isoprenaline injection

10) Followings are the penicillinase-resistant penicillin except:

a) Carbenicillin
b) Methicillin
c) Nafcillin
d) Cloxacillin

11) Which of the following antibiotic acts as a protein synthesis inhibitor?

a) Erythromycin, Chloramphenicol
b) Vancomycin, Cephamycin
c) Gentamicin, Tetracycline
d) Options a and c
e) Options b and c

12) Ototoxicity, vestibulo-toxic impairment, and nephrotoxicity are seen as major adverse effects of

a) Aminoglycosides
b) Macrolides
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) All of the above

13) Gray baby syndrome in neonates can be caused by

a) Penicillin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Quinolones
d) Sulphonamides

14) Fanconi syndrome can be caused by

a) Tetracycline
b) Quinolones
c) Sulphonamide
d) Penicillin

15) Following cephalosporins can cross the blood-brain barrier and therefore can be used in the treatment of meningitis except

a) Ceftazidime
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Cefotaxime
d) Cefixime

16) Random use of broad-spectrum antibiotic is contraindicated. They

a) Are extremely nephrotoxic
b) Can produce dependency and psychogenic symptoms
c) Can induce anaphylactoid reactions
d) Can interfere with indigenous microbiota

17) All of the followings are the adverse effects of tetracycline except:

a) Ototoxicity
b) Phototoxicity
c) Fatal hepatotoxicity
d) Yellow discoloration of teeth

18) Which of the following group of antibiotics show bacteriostatic action?

a) Fluoroquinolones
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Macrolides
d) Monobactams

19) Which of the following group of antibiotics in accordance with structure and mode of action to penicillin?

a) Chloramphenicol
b) Polymyxins
c) Cycloserines
d) Cephalosporins

1-a) Penicillin: inhibition of cell wall synthesis

2-b) They all have a β-lactam ring as a part of their biological interaction

3-d) Oral absorption

4-b) Inhibits beta-lactamases and can be administered with penicillinase sensitive penicillins

5-c) Cefotetan

6-a) Ceftriaxone IM

7-d) Vancomycin

8-d) Inhibition of renal tubular dipeptidase thus preventing hydrolysis of Imipenem by renal tubular dipeptidase

9-b) Chlorpheniramine injection

10-a) Carbenicillin

11-d) Options a and c

12-a) Aminoglycosides

13-b) Chloramphenicol

14-a) Tetracycline

15-d) Cefixime

16-d) Can interfere with indigenous microbiota

17-a) Ototoxicity

18-c) Macrolides

19-d) Cephalosporins

Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-I

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 16, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-II

Biotechnology June 13, 2019

Multiple Choice Question on Antimicrobial Agents

1) Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis?
a) Penicillin
b) Quinolones
c) Sulphonamides
d) Cephalosporin

2) Followings are the second-generation quinolones except:
a) Gatifloxacin
b) Enoxacin
c) Ofloxacin
d) Ciprofloxacin

3) Which of the followings are the drug interactions of quinolones is correct?
a) Antacids, calcium supplements decrease the absorption of quinolones
b) Quinolones enhance the metabolism of theophylline
c) Antacids, calcium supplements increase absorption of quinolones
d) Increased metabolism of warfarin and caffeine

4) The mechanism of action of Trimethoprim is:
a) Inhibition of enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase
b) Activation of enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
c) Inhibition of enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
d) Activation of enzyme dihydrofolate reductase

5) All of the following combinations are true except:
a) Ciprofloxacin: inhibition of DNA gyrase
b) Polymyxin B: inhibition of 50s protein synthesis
c) Erythromycin: inhibition of 50s protein synthesis
d) Sulphonamide: inhibition of folic acid

6) Cotrimoxazole is a combination of drugs
a) Sulphonamide + Chloramphenicol
b) Sulphonamide + Lincomycin
c) Sulphonamide + Trimethoprim
d) Sulphonamide + Tetracycline

7) Following adverse effects are shown by the corresponding drugs are true except
a) Chloramphenicol: gray baby syndrome
b) Cefoperazone: disulfiram-like reactions
c) Tetracycline: Fanconi syndrome
d) Sulphonamide: red man syndrome

8) The following statement about quinolones is true except:
a) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
b) Gemifloxacin and Clinafloxacin are 4th generation quinolone
c) Norfloxacin is 1st generation quinolone and used in the treatment of UTI
d) Second generation quinolone has increased activity against gram-positive bacteria including S. pneumoniae

9) Ciprofloxacin should not be used with theophylline because

a) It decreases the efficacy of theophylline
b) It increases the toxicity of theophylline
c) Decreases absorption of theophylline
d) Decreases the efficacy of ciprofloxacin

10) Prolonged therapy of …………………………… leads to the development of pseudomembranous colitis
a) Amikacin
b) Clindamycin
c) Streptomycin
d) Vancomycin

11) By binding to the fungal ergosterol and alters its cellular permeability is the mechanism of action of ……………………….
a) Ketoconazole
b) Griseofulvin
c) Clotrimazole
d) Amphotericin B

12) Most commonly used antifungal topically for suppression of local candida infection is …………………
a) Miconazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Nystatin
d) Flucytosine

13) The type of drug interactions between flucytosine and amphotericin B is ………………………
a) Synergism
b) Antagonism
c) Potentiation
d) Additive

14) Which antifungal acts by non-competitive inhibition of squalene epoxidase thereby inhibition of ergosterol synthesis?
a) Flucytosine
b) Griseofulvin
c) Terbinafine
d) Ketoconazole

15) For the treatment of tinea cruris and tinea corporis, which topical allylamine(s) can be used?
a) Terbinafine
b) Naftifine
c) Both
d) None of the above

16) Gynecomastia and menstrual irregularities are the adverse effects of ………………
a) Terbinafine
b) Flucytosine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Ketoconazole

17) Followings are the correct combination of drug and its mechanism of action except:
a) Polyenes: binds to and disrupt the fungal cell membrane
b) Griseofulvin: blocks intracellular microtubules
c) Allylamines: inhibition of squalene epoxidase and blocks ergosterol formation in the cell membrane
d) Flucytosine: inhibition of cytochrome P450 dependent 14 α-demethylase and blocks ergosterol formation in the cell membrane

18) Flucytosine acts by
a) Inhibition of thymidylate synthetase leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis
b) Disruption of the mitotic spindle during metaphase by interacting with fungal microtubules
c) Inhibition of squalene epoxidase and blocks ergosterol formation in the cell membrane
d) None of the above

19) The most potent azoles antifungal is ………………….
a) Itraconazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) Miconazole

20) Followings are the drug interactions of Ketoconazole except:
a) Inhibition of the metabolism of cyclosporine thereby increasing its toxicity
b) Enhanced metabolism of Astemizole and Terfenadine thereby decreasing arrhythmias
c) Cimetidine interferes with Ketoconazole absorption by increasing gastric pH
d) Rifamycins increase Ketoconazole hepatic metabolism

Multiple Choice Answers
1-b) Quinolones
2-a) Gatifloxacin
3-a) Antacids, calcium supplements decrease the absorption of quinolones
4-c) Inhibition of enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
5-b) Polymyxin B: inhibition of 50s protein synthesis
6-c) Sulphonamide + Trimethoprim
7-d) Sulphonamide: red man syndrome
8-d) Second generation quinolone has increased activity against gram-positive bacteria including S. pneumoniae
9-b) It increases the toxicity of theophylline
10-b) Clindamycin
11-d) Amphotericin B
12-c) Nystatin
13-a) Synergism
14-c)Terbinafine
15-c) Both
16-d) Ketoconazole
17-d) Flucytosine: inhibition of cytochrome P450 dependent 14 α-demethylase and blocks ergosterol formation in the cell membrane
18-a) Inhibition of thymidylate synthetase leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis
19-a) Itraconazole
20-b) Enhanced metabolism of Astemizole and Terfenadine thereby decreasing arrhythmias

Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-II

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 13, 2019 Rating: 5

Drug for treatment of Gastrointestinal disease MCQ

Biotechnology June 13, 2019

Drug for treatment of Gastrointestinal disease

Multiple Choice Question

1) All of the following drugs act by reducing gastric acid secretion except:
a) Omeprazole
b) Famotidine
c) Pirenzepine
d) Sucralfate

2) The following statement about Omeprazole is true except:
a) It is highly plasma protein bound
b) Its bioavailability is not affected by food
c) It is metabolized by the liver
d) It provides long-lasting acid suppression

3) Which of the following drugs have an anti-androgenic effect?
a) Ranitidine
b) Cimetidine
c) Famotidine
d) Nizatidine

4) All of the following statements about antacid are true except:
a) Weak bases that neutralize gastric pH
b) Inhibits the formation of pepsin
c) Aluminum antacids cause diarrhea and magnesium antacids cause constipation
d) Aluminum antacids cause constipation and magnesium antacids cause diarrhea

5) The following antiemetic act by blocking D2 receptor in the CTZ:
a) Metoclopramide
b) Cisapride
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Domperidone

6) ………………. interferes with the most of CYP450 enzymes and thus leads to many drug interactions.
a) Famotidine
b) Omeprazole
c) Ondansetron
d) Cimetidine

7) Which one of the following is the less frequent side effect of Metronidazole?
a) Anorexia
b) Metallic taste
c) Glossitis
d) Abdominal cramps

8) The drug of choice for single dose treatment of onchocerciasis and strongyloidiasis is ……………
a) Ivermectin
b) Diethylcarbamazine citrate
c) Tetramisole
d) Niclosamide

9) Which of the following is a stool softener that has no effect on fat-soluble vitamins?
a) Castor oil
b) Phenolphthalein
c) Cascara Sagrada
d) Docusate sodium

10) All of the following are the rationale of ORS composition except:
a) It is isotonic
b) Glucose facilitates Na+ absorption
c) Enough K+ to replenish losses in loose stool
d) All of the above

11) The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy:
a) Bisacodyl
b) Liquid paraffin
c) Magnesium sulfate
d) Lactulose

12) Which one of the following statements for Albendazole is not true?
a) Absorption may be enhanced by administration with a fatty meal
b) Inhibits microtubule polymerization
c) Does not undergo first-pass metabolism
d) Eliminated in the bile

13) All of the following are the mechanism of action of metoclopramide except
a) D2 antagonism
b) 5-HT4 agonism
c) 5-HT3 antagonism
d) 5-HT4 antagonism

14) Which of the following is the most effective drug for motion sickness?
a) Hyoscine
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Prochlorperazine
d) Haloperidol

15) All of the following describes the drug interaction with metoclopramide except
a) Increases absorption aspirin
b) Reduces absorption of digoxin
c) Additive sedative effects occur when taken with sedative
d) a and b
e) a, b and c

16) Tardive dyskinesia is a major adverse effect of ………………
a) Cisapride
d) Promethazine
c) Hyoscine
d) Metoclopramide

17) The following are examples of stimulant purgatives except
a) Lactulose
b) Bisacodyl
c) Senna
d) Castor oil

18) Followings are the indications of Octreotide except:
a) Secretory diarrhea due to carcinoid tumor
b) Diarrhea due to vagotomy
c) Diarrhea due to short bowel syndrome
d) Acute diarrhea

19) Which one of the following drug interactions with anti-diarrheal agents is not true?
a) Adsorbents increase the absorption of drugs like digoxin, quinidine, clindamycin, and hypoglycemic agents
b) Adsorbents cause increased bleeding time when given along with anticoagulants
c) Antacids can decrease the effects of anticholinergic anti-diarrheal drugs
d) Adsorbents decrease the absorption of drugs like digoxin, quinidine, clindamycin, and hypoglycemic agents

20) Choose the correct drug and its mode of action combinations
a) Liquid paraffin: stool softener
b) Bisacodyl: osmotic purgative
c) Lactulose: osmotic purgative
a) Ispaghula: bulk-forming

Multiple Choice Answers

1-d) Sucralfate

2-b) Its bioavailability is not affected by food

3-b) Cimetidine

4-d) Aluminum antacids cause constipation and magnesium antacids cause diarrhea

5-c) Chlorpromazine

6-d) Cimetidine

7-c) Glossitis

8-a) Ivermectin

9-d) Docusate sodium

10-d) All of the above

11-d) Lactulose

12-c) Does not undergo first-pass metabolism

13-d) 5-HT4 antagonism

14-a) Hyoscine

15-e) a, b and c

16-d) Metoclopramide

17-a) Lactulose

18-d) Acute diarrhea

19-a) Adsorbents increase the absorption of drugs like digoxin, quinidine, clindamycin, and hypoglycemic agents

20-b) Bisacodyl: osmotic purgative

Drug for treatment of Gastrointestinal disease MCQ

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 13, 2019 Rating: 5

MCQ on Drug for the treatment of Respiratory Disease

Biotechnology June 13, 2019

Drug for the treatment of Respiratory Disease

Multiple Choice Question

(Bronchial asthma, Tuberculosis, Antihistaminic, and Cough therapy)

1) All of the followings are selective β2-agonist except:
a) Isoprenaline
b) Salbutamol
c) Terbutaline
d) Formeterol

2) All of the following combinations of drug and its mechanism of action is correct except:
a) Salbutamol: stimulation of β2 receptor causing bronchodilation
b) Sodium cromoglicate: mast cell stabilization
c) Zafirlukast: leukotriene modulators
d) Theophylline: non-selective β2 receptor stimulation causing bronchodilation

3) Which of the following statement about Salmeterol is not true?
a) It acts by relaxing muscles in the airways to improve breathing
b) It is a short-acting selective β2 agonist
c) Salmeterol inhalation is used to prevent asthma attacks
d) Salmeterol inhalation is used to treat COPD including emphysema and chronic bronchitis

4) Which of the following inhibits acetylcholine-mediated bronchospasm?
a) Theophylline
b) Ephedrine
c) Ipratropium
d) Salmeterol

5) All of the following statements about the use of glucocorticoids in asthma is true except:
a) Reduces bronchial inflammation and hyperactivity to stimuli
b) Have delayed onset of action
c) Given as prophylactic medications, used alone or combined with β-agonists
d) They are bronchodilators

6) Systemic corticosteroids are indicated in the following conditions EXCEPT:
a) Mild episodic asthma
b) Severe chronic asthma
c) Status asthmaticus
d) To prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

7) Which one of the following is not a side effect due to systemic corticosteroids?
a) Adrenal suppression
b) Fluid retention, weight gain, hypertension
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Sleep disorders

8) All of the following statements about histamine is true except:
a) Increases blood pressure
b) Stimulates gastric acid secretion
c) Causes dilatation of capillaries
d) Causes constriction of bronchial smooth muscles

9) Isoniazid-induced liver damage:
a) Occurs primarily in patients under 30 years of age
b) Occurs with increased frequency in patients receiving concomitant ethambutol therapy
c) is probably due to the formation of a toxic hydrazine metabolite that binds to liver protein
d) is frequently associated with allergic manifestations such as eosinophilia, fever, and rash.

10) Development of peripheral neuritis is associated with …………………
a) Rifampin
b) Ethambutol
c) Isoniazid
d) Streptomycin

11) Which of the following is the drug of choice in the treatment of productive cough?
a) Dextromethorphan
b) Pholcodine
c) Bromhexine
d) Noscapine

12) Astemizole and terfenadine may cause fatal arrhythmia when used in combination with some macrolides or antifungal agents. They
a) Lengthen QT interval via direct action on cardiac H2 receptors
b) Increase metabolism of macrolide antibiotics
c) Cause accumulation of these agents following inhibition of CYP3A4, a cytochrome p450 enzyme
d) Exacerbate histamine-induced hypotension causing increased cardiac oxygen demand during reflex tachycardia

13) Which one of the following statements about cough is correct?
a) Cough must always be treated with an anti-tussive regardless of its cause
b) Codeine is effective in the treatment of productive cough
c) Pentoxyverine is especially well suited to treat cough in infants
d) Angiotensin II receptor blockers can cause cough

14) Choose the correct statement about rifampin:
a) It is the most active drug on slow-growing tubercle bacilli
b) Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid
c) It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
d) It does not effectively cross the blood-CSF barrier

15) What is a serious adverse reaction caused by ethambutol?
a) Stomach upset
b) Eye damage
c) Gout
d) Hepatotoxicity

16) Choose the correct drug and its mechanism of action combination:
a) Rifampicin: inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
b) Pyrazinamide: interferes mycobacteria fatty acid synthesis and inactivates mycobacteria at alkaline pH
c) Ethambutol: Interferes with mycolic acid synthesis
d) Isoniazid: Inhibits arabinosyl transferases involved in cell wall biosynthesis

17) The following anti-tubercular drug is a potent CYP-P450 enzyme inducer:
a) Isoniazid
b) Ethambutol
c) Rifampicin
d) Pyrazinamide

18) Which of the following pharmacologic agents antagonizes adenosine?
a) Theophylline
b) Glucocorticoids
c) Cromolyn sodium
d) Terbutaline

19) All of the following statements about antihistaminic are correct EXCEPT:
a) Some histamine H1 receptor antagonists are used in the prophylaxis and treatment of motion sickness
b) Promethazine possesses anti-emetic, sedative and anti-muscarinic activity
c) Histamine H1 receptor antagonists inhibit the release of histamine
d) Histamine H1 receptor antagonists are effective in the treatment of hay fever

20) An anti-tubercular drug which is bacteriostatic to resting organism is………….
a) Pyrazinamide
b) Isoniazid
c) Ethambutol
d) Rifampicin

Multiple Choice Answers
1-a) Isoprenaline
2-d)Theophylline: non-selective β2 receptor stimulation causing bronchodilation
3-b) It is a short-acting selective β2 agonist
4-c) Ipratropium
5-d) They are bronchodilators
6-a) Mild episodic asthma
7-d) Sleep disorders
8-a) Increases blood pressure
9-c) is probably due to the formation of a toxic hydrazine metabolite that binds to liver protein
10-c) Isoniazid
11-c) Bromhexine
12-c) cause accumulation of these agents following inhibition of CYP3A4, a cytochrome p450 enzyme
13-d) Angiotensin II receptor blockers can cause cough
14-c) It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
15-b) Eye damage
16-a) Rifampicin: inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
17-c) Rifampicin
18-a) Theophylline
19-c) Histamine H1 receptor antagonists inhibit the release of histamine
20-b) Isoniazid

Author: Ronak Shrestha

MCQ on Drug for the treatment of Respiratory Disease

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 13, 2019 Rating: 5

Drug for treatment of Musculoskeletal disease: MCQ

Biotechnology June 13, 2019

Drug for treatment of Musculoskeletal disease
Multiple Choice Question on

1) Following statements about non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are true except:
a) Cause relief of pain – analgesic effect
b) Suppress the signs and symptoms of inflammation
c) Exerts anti-pyretic effects
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

2) The constitutive cyclooxygenase-1 enzyme responsible for
a) Gastrointestinal cytoprotection
b) Renal blood flow maintenance and electrolyte homeostasis
c) Platelets aggregation
d) Option a, b and c
e) Option a and b only

3) High dose of aspirin (more than 4 gm/day) is eliminated by ……………… kinetics
a) Zero-order
b) First order

4) Followings are the features of salicylism except:
a) Tinnitus
b) Blurred vision
c) Hyperventilation
d) All of the above

5) The following statements on aspirin are true except:
a) Aspirin displaces oral anticoagulants from its plasma protein binding sites and increases its activities leading to toxicity
b) Enhances the uricosuric effects of probenecid and sulphinpyrazone
c) Barbiturate increases the analgesic effect of aspirin
d) Aspirin displaces oral hypoglycemics from its plasma protein binding sites and increases its activities leading to toxicity

6) Followings are the acetic acid derivates of NSAIDs except:
a) Nimesulide
b) Sundilac
c) Indomethacin
d) Diclofenac

7) NSAID used for the treatment of patent ductus arteriosus in premature babies is
a) Naproxen
b) Diclofenac
c) Indomethacin
d) Piroxicam

8) Reye’s syndrome is an adverse effect of ………………
a) Paracetamol
b) Ibuprofen
c) Sundilac
d) Aspirin

9) An antidote for acute paracetamol toxicity is …………………….
a) N-acetylcysteine
b) Charcoal
c) Vitamin K
d) None of the above

10) ………………. is used as an analgesic, not an as anti-inflammatory agent
a) Nimesulide
b) Piroxicam
c) Ketorolac
d) Indomethacin

11) Which one of the following statements concerning COX-2 inhibitors is correct?
a) The COX-2 inhibitors show greater analgesic activity than traditional NSAIDs
b) The COX-2 inhibitors show anti-inflammatory activity similar to that of traditional NSAIDs
c) The COX-2 inhibitors are cardioprotective
d) The COX-2 inhibitors decrease platelet function

12) Which of the following anti-gout drug acts by inhibition of uric acid synthesis?
a) Probenecid
b) Sulfinpyrazone
c) Colchicine
d) Allopurinol

13) Following statements about colchicine for treatment of gout is true except:
a) Acts by the arrest of the metaphase stage of multiplying inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation
b) Helps in reducing pain and inflammation of gout
c) Colchicine may rarely cause serious muscle damage, rhabdomyolysis
d) Can be used as a pain medication to relieve other causes of pain

14) The following statement about Probenecid is true except
a) High dose probenecid decreases the proximal tubular reabsorption of uric acid
b) High dose probenecid increases the proximal tubular reabsorption of uric acid
c) Low dose probenecid decreases the proximal tubular reabsorption of uric acid
d) Low dose probenecid increases the distal tubular secretion of uric acid

15) Phase II block phenomenon during skeletal muscle relaxation is seen in;
a) Rocuronium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Dantrolene
d) Orphenadrine

16) Which of the following statement about Allopurinol is correct?
a) Allopurinol inhibits the effect of Azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine
b) Allopurinol potentiates the effect of Azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine
c) Allopurinol dissolves uric acid crystals and limits the formation of new ones
d) Allopurinol belongs to a uricosuric class of drugs

17) The primary toxicity leading to death from an acetaminophen overdose is ……………….
papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis
a) pancytopenia
b) hepatocellular necrosis
c) myocarditis

18) The immunosuppressive effect of methotrexate is a result of its inhibition of which of these?
a) Dihydrofolate reductase
b) Leukocyte migration
c) Microtubule function
d) Phospholipase A2

19) Indomethacin causes the following adverse effects except:
a) Gastric irritation
b) Mental confusion
c) Decreased risk of bleeding due to increased platelet aggregability
d) Reduces Na+ excretion leading to increased fluid retention and fluid overload

20) All of the followings are intermediate acting non-depolarizing competitive skeletal muscle relaxants except:
a) Mivacurium
b) Vecuronium
c) Rocuronium
d) Atracurium

Multiple Choice Answers

1-d) All of the above
2- d) Options a, b and c
3-a) Zero-order
4-d) All of the above
5-b) Enhances the uricosuric effects of probenecid and sulphinpyrazone
6-a) Nimesulide
7-c) Indomethacin
8-d) Aspirin
9-a) N-acetylcysteine
10-c) Ketorolac
11-b) The COX-2 inhibitors show anti-inflammatory activity similar to that of traditional NSAIDs
12-d) Allopurinol
13-d) Can be used as a pain medication to relieve other causes of pain
14-a) High dose probenecid decreases the proximal tubular reabsorption of uric acid
15-b) Succinylcholine
16-b) Allopurinol potentiates the effect of Azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine
17-b) hepatocellular necrosis
18-a) Dihydrofolate reductase
19-c) Decreased risk of bleeding due to increased platelet aggregability
20-a) Mivacurium

Drug for treatment of Musculoskeletal disease: MCQ

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 13, 2019 Rating: 5

MCQ on Drugs targeting Autonomic Nervous System Cholinergic, Muscarinic, Adrenergic Receptor

Biotechnology June 12, 2019

Drugs targeting Autonomic Nervous System (Cholinergic, Muscarinic, Adrenergic)Multiple Choice Questions

1) Indirect-acting cholinomimetic agent acts via

a) Stimulation of action of acetylcholinesterase
b) Binds to and activate muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
c) Inhibition of hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine
d) Release of acetylcholine from the storage site

2) All of the followings are reversible indirectly acting cholinomimetics except:

a) Physostigmine
b) Neostigmine
c) Edrophonium
d) Echothiophate

3) The drug used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is ………………….

a) Ambenonium
b) Pyridostigmine
c) Neostigmine
d) Edrophonium

4) Which of the following cholinomimetic drug is used for the treatment of craving reduction in nicotine addiction?

a) Varenicline
b) Cevimeline
c) Galantamine
d) Bupropion

5) Stimulation of which subtype of the muscarinic cholinergic receptor causes miosis?

a) M1
b) M2
c) M4
d) M3
e) M5

6) The drug of choice in the management of atropine poisoning is ……………………

a) Edrophonium
b) Pyridostigmine
c) Echothiophate
d) Physostigmine

7) Following are the uses of Bethanechol except:

a) Neurogenic ileus
b) Congenital megacolon
c) Postpartum or postoperative urinary retention
d) All of the above

8) Which of the following muscarinic antagonist is used to prevent or decrease vestibular disturbances, motion sickness?

a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Tropicamide

9) Which of the antimuscarinic agent is effective in the treatment of mushroom poisoning?

a) Pralidoxime
b) Pilocarpine
c) Atropine
d) Homatropine

10) In organophosphate poisoning, the drug is given to relieve neuromuscular manifestation is………………….

a) Pralidoxime
b) Atropine
c) Homatropine
d) Benzodiazepines

11) All of the following actions are mediated by muscarinic receptors except:

a) Negative chronotropic and inotropic effects
b) Detrusor muscle contraction and relaxation of trigone and sphincter muscles of the urinary bladder
c) Decreased peristalsis and contraction of the gastrointestinal tract
d) Increased peristalsis and relaxation of the gastrointestinal tract

12) Following statements about indirect-acting adrenergic agonists are true except:

a) Interaction with a specific adrenoceptor
b) Release of the endogenous catecholamines
c) Do not bind to specific receptor
d) Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines already released

13) Which of the following alpha-adrenergic blocking drugs show first dose phenomenon?

a) Yohimbine
b) Phentolamine
c) Tolazoline
d) Prazosin

14) Metoprolol is different from propranolol in the following context;

a) Metoprolol is less likely to cause bronchoconstriction
b) Metoprolol has selectivity for beta-2 adrenoceptor
c) Metoprolol is used to treat hypertension
d) Metoprolol inhibits renin release from the kidney

15) Following agent act by competitive antagonism at the neuromuscular junction of nicotinic cholinoceptors:

a) Atracurium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Dantrolene
d) Isoflurophate

16) Drug of choice for the treatment of altitude sickness is …………………

a) Timolol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetazolamide
d) Neostigmine

17) A patient with antimuscarinic toxicity shows the following symptoms:

a) Blurred vision
b) Xerostomia
c) Urinary retention
d) All of the above

18) Which of the following is the β blocker with additional vasodilatory effect?

a) Propanolol
b) Nadolol
c) Pindolol
d) Carvedilol

19) All of the following are the adverse effects of selective β 2 agonists except

a) Tremor
b) Tachycardia
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Hyperkalemia

20) Which of the following agent is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

a) Dantrolene
b) Atracurium
c) Succinylcholine
d) Mecamylamine

Multiple Choice Answers
1-c) Inhibition of hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine
2-d)Echothiophate
3-d)Edrophonium
4-d)Varenicline
5-d)M3
6-d)Physostigmine
7-d)All of the above
8-b) Scopolamine
9-c) Atropine
10-a) Pralidoxime
11-c)Decreased peristalsis and contraction of the gastrointestinal tract
12-a) Interaction with a specific adrenoceptor
13-d) Prazosin
14-a)Metoprolol is less likely to cause bronchoconstriction
15-a) Atracurium
16-c) Acetazolamide
17-d) All of the above
18-d) Carvedilol
19-d) Hyperkalemia
20-a) Dantrolene

MCQ on Drugs targeting Autonomic Nervous System Cholinergic, Muscarinic, Adrenergic Receptor

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 12, 2019 Rating: 5

Introduction to Pharmacology, Pharmacodynamics and Pharmacokinetic MCQ

Biotechnology June 12, 2019

Introduction to Pharmacology, Pharmacodynamics, and Pharmacokinetic

Multiple Choice Question

1) A molecule that interacts as an activator or inhibitor and brings about a change in the biological function through its chemical actions is known as …………………………
a) Hormone
b) Neurotransmitter
c) Protein
d) Drug

2) The action of the drug on the body is known as ……………………….
a) Pharmacokinetic
b) Pharmacodynamic
c) Pharmacology
d) Pharmacotherapeutics

3) Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Weak bases are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach
b) Co-administration of atropine speed up the absorption of a second drug
c) Drugs showing a large Vd can be efficiently removed by dialysis of the plasma
d) Weak acids are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach

4) The desired physicochemical properties of drugs are:
a) Ionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
b) Unionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
c) Unionized, highly plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
d) Unionized, highly plasma protein bound, lipid-insoluble

5) Which of the following statement about receptor is not true?
a) It determines the quantitative relations between dose or concentration of drug and pharmacologic effects.
b) Responsible for the selectivity of drug action.
c) Mediates the actions of pharmacological agonists and antagonists.
d) None of the above

6) The efficacy of agonist is reduced without affecting its potency is found in ………………….
a) Antagonism.
b) Noncompetitive
c) Competitive
d) Non-competitive and competitive
d) Inverse

7) Which of the following statement about competitive antagonism is true?
a) Can cause a parallel shift to the right in a drug-response curve for agonist
b) Can be reversed by increasing dose of agonist
c) Appear to decrease the potency of the agonist
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

8) Which of the following effect can be seen in competitive antagonism in a drug-response curve?
a) Non-parallel left shift
b) Non-parallel right shift
c) Parallel right shift
d) Parallel left shift

9) Agonists have
a) Affinity to receptors only
b) Affinity and maximal intrinsic activity
c) Affinity but no intrinsic activity
d) Affinity and submaximal intrinsic activity

10) The IV administration of drugs are
a) 100% bioavailable
b) Rapidly absorbed
c) Undergoes the first-pass metabolism
d) Rapidly excreted by renal

11) The concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of that drug’s maximal effects is termed as ……………….
a) Efficacy
b) Potency
c) Affinity
d) Bioavailability

12) For a drug given orally, the principal site of drug absorption is ……………………
a) Stomach
b) Small intestine
c) Oesophagus
d) Large intestine

13) Biotransformation of the drugs may lead to all of the following except
a) Inactive metabolite from an active drug
b) Active metabolite from an active drug
c) Active metabolite from an inactive drug
d) Inactive metabolite from inactive drug

14) Depot of the drug can be formed by …………………….
a) Subcutaneous and intramuscular route
b) Intravenous route
c) Subcutaneous route
d) Intradermal and subcutaneous route

15) Conjugation of a drug with glucuronic acid via glucuronosyl transferase with result in all of the following except
a) production of a more water-soluble moiety that is more easily excreted
b) a drug with a different pharmacological mechanism of action
c) a new compound that may also possess pharmacologic activity
d) a drug molecule that may undergo enterohepatic recirculation and reintroduction into the bloodstream

18) All of the following concerning the blood-brain barrier (BBB) and the passage of drugs from the systemic circulation to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is true except
a) ionized drugs are likely to cross into the CSF than unionized drugs
b) the higher the lipid solubility of a drug, the more likely it will cross into the CSF
c) inflammation of the meninges improves the likelihood that drugs will cross the BBB as compared to an uninflamed state

17) P glycoprotein serves to pump back the drugs into the systemic circulation from endothelial cell linings of the BBB
The following log dose-response curve show that

a) Drug A and B have equal potency
b) Drug B and C have equal efficacy
c) Drug A and B have equal efficacy
d) Drug A and C have the same affinity and efficacy

18) Phase II metabolism associated with a genetic polymorphism is ………………………….
a) Acetylation
b) Oxidation
c) Reduction
d) Glutathione conjugation

19) When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half-life intervals, the steady-state plasma drug concentration is reached after:
a) 2-3 half-lives
b) 4-5 half-lives
c) 6-7 half-lives
d) 8-10 half-lives

20) An ‘orphan drug’ is
a) A very cheap drug
b) A drug which has no therapeutic use
c) A drug which acts on orphan receptors
d) A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease

Multiple Choice Answers
1-d) Drug
2-b) Pharmacodynamic
3-d) Weak acids are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach
4-a) Ionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
5-d) None of the above
6-a) Noncompetitive
7-d) All of the above
8-c) Parallel right shift
9-b) Affinity and maximal intrinsic activity
10-a) 100% bioavailable
11- b) Potency
12- b) small intestine
13- d) Inactive metabolite from inactive drug
14-a) Subcutaneous and intramuscular route
15-b) a drug with a different pharmacological mechanism of action
16-a) ionized drugs are likely to cross into the CSF than unionized drugs
17-b) Drug B and C have equal efficacy
18-a) Acetylation
19-b) 4-5 half-lives
20-d) A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease

Introduction to Pharmacology, Pharmacodynamics and Pharmacokinetic MCQ

Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 12, 2019 Rating: 5

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