Preparatory Guide on Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Physiology, Microbiology, Immunology, Pharmacology & Drug Discovery

Biochemical Assessment of Renal Function: MCQ

May 23, 2019
The renal system covers the glomerular function, tubular function, acid-base homeostasis, biochemical assessment, and clinical correlations. The glomerulus is mainly involved in the filtration of the blood for the excretion of waste products while retaining most of the proteins. The renal tubules function in secretion, reabsorption, and excretion of electrolytes, ions, organic acids, urea. The renal tubules help regulate osmolality, volume, and pH of the blood. This chapter includes the biochemical test and interpretation for diagnosis and monitoring of renal diseases.

Multiple Choice Question on 
Biochemical Assessment of Kidney

1) The clearance test of a substance such as creatinine is used for the estimation of glomerular filtration rate and an index of renal function. Which of the following are the characteristics of substance ideal for estimation of GFR?
a) Stable plasma concentration that is easily measured
b) Freely filtered into Bowman's capsule
c) Not reabsorbed, secreted or metabolized in the kidney
d) All of the above

2) The figure below represents the clearance of four different substances (Glucose, Creatinine, Inulin, and Para amino hippuric acid). Identify the clearance of the chart based on its reabsorption and secretion in the kidney.

3) Which of the following is the gold standard substance for the clearance test used for estimation of GFR?
a) Para-amino-hippuric acid
b) Creatinine
c) Inulin
d) Glucose

4) Select the correct Creatinine Clearance from the following laboratory parameters
a) 100 mL/min
b) 120 mL/min
c) 140 mL/min
d) 160 mL/min
(Link for Calculations)

Answer
1- d) All of the above
2- Answers: A- Para amino hippuric acid, B- Creatinine, C- Inulin, D-Glucose
3-c) Inulin
4)-b








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MCQ on Gram Positive Cocci (Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus)

May 17, 2019
Gram Positive Cocci (Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus) -Multiple Choice Question

1) A 2 days old premature baby boy born to a 22-year-old woman develops pneumonia, the mother seems healthy although premature delivery during 35 weeks of gestation. The blood specimen is taken from the baby and cultured which shows bacterial growth with beta hemolysis. The mother develops urinary tract infection after giving birth, which could be the possible bacteria that transferred from the mother to the baby and caused infection?
a) Streptococcus pyogenes 
b) Streptococcus agalactiae 
c) Enterococcus faecalis
d) Streptococcus bovis 

2) Which of the following bacteria is the most frequent cause of pharyngitis?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

3) A 9-year-old boy develops an erythematous rash around his face with redness of the skin, when examined no other signs or symptoms are observed but have swollen lymph nodes around the infection. The pathogen isolated is found to be gram-positive bacteria, what could be the possible diagnosis?
a) Glomerulonephritis
b) Erysipelas
c) Impetigo
d) Cellulitis

4) What other pathogens can also be the causative agent for the above disease condition?
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Staphylococcus aureus >
c) Streptococcus agalactiae
d) Trichophyton rubrum

5) All of the following are the characteristics of Streptococcus pneumoniae, EXCEPT?
a) The colonies are diplococcus and encapsulated
b) Alpha hemolytic colonies appear in blood culture media
c) It is present as normal flora in healthy individuals
d) It grows well in a high concentration of glucose media >

6) Which of the following bacteria causes otitis media?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae 
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) Streptococcus intermedius


7) Which of the following cocci is a part of normal flora in the mouth?
a) Streptococcus agalactiae
b) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Streptococcus mutans

8) What are the different infections caused by Group A Streptococcus spp? Select all the correct answers
a) Pharyngitis
b) Impetigo
c) Scarlet fever
d) Meningitis

9) Which of the following is the complications of autoimmune reaction from pharyngitis?
a) Rheumatic fever
b) Scarlet fever
c) Fasciitis
d) None of the above

10) Each of the following statement is correct about Enterococcus spp, EXCEPT?
a) They can grow in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions
b) Resistant to high salt concentrations
c) The morphological characteristics resemble that of S. pyogenes
d) The common cause of hospital-acquired infections

11) Name the cocci which are the part of bacterial flora found in human intestines? Select all the correct answers
a) Enterococcus faecalis
b) Micrococcus luteus
c) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Streptococcus mutans

12) Which of the following is NOT the virulent factor, an important antigenic property of S. pyogenes?
a) Endotoxins
b) Streptolysin
c) Streptokinase
d) M protein

13) Which of the following pathogen is the main cause of endocarditis in individuals having heart diseases?
a) Streptococcus intermedius
b) Enterococcus faecalis
c) Streptococcus suis
d) Micrococcus luteus

14) Which of the following is the most effective drug therapy for the infections caused by Enterococcus faecalis?
a) Cephalosporin
b) Aminoglycoside with penicillin
c) Macrolide
d) Oral penicillin V with ampicillin

15) Which of the following bacteria is most resistant to the drug vancomycin?
a) Enterococcus faecium
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Lactobacillus acidophilus


Multiple Choice Answers

1-b) Streptococcus agalactiae 
2-c) Streptococcus pyogenes
3-c) Impetigo 
4-b) Staphylococcus aureus 
5-d) It grows well in a high concentration of glucose media 
6-a) Streptococcus pneumoniae 
7-d) Streptococcus mutans
8- Option a), b) & c) 
9-a) Rheumatic fever
10-c) The morphological characteristics resemble that of S. pyogenes 
11-a) Enterococcus faecalis 
12-a) Endotoxins 
13-b) Enterococcus faecalis 
14-b) Aminoglycoside with penicillin 
15-a) Enterococcus faecium 

MCQ on Gram Positive Cocci (Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus) MCQ on Gram Positive Cocci (Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus) Reviewed by Biotechnology on May 17, 2019 Rating: 5

Medical Mycology: MCQ on Systemic Mycoses

May 11, 2019
1) All of the following are the characteristics of systemic mycoses, EXCEPT?
a) It is caused by dimorphic fungi
b) Pathogenesis mostly occurs due to the inhalation of spores
c) Lungs are the site of infections for all the fungi
d) Infection can develop in patients who have a weak immune system

2) Blastomyces dermatitidis is a dimorphic fungus that exists as yeast or mold depending upon its growth temperature, all of the following are the characteristics of yeast form of B. dermatitidis, EXCEPT?
a) The incubation temperature is 25-degree Celsius
b) It reproduces by the formation of blastoconidia
c) The cells are spherical in shape with a thick double layer wall
d) Amphotericin is the drug of choice

3) Coccidioidomycosis has the lesions the same as that of the lesion caused by which of the following infections?
a) Sporotrichosis
b) Brucellosis
c) Syphilis
d) Candidiasis

4) Which of the following statement is true for the direct examination of sputum or tissue sample taken from coccidioidomycosis?
a) Identification of budding yeast with its pseudohyphae
b) The detection of spherules with endospores in sputum or tissue
c) The saprophytic phase is observed as septate mycelium with pyriform conidia
d) Tuberculate microconidia are observed in culture

5) What is the other name for the coccidioidomycosis?
a) Yellow fever
b) San Joaquin Valley fever
c) Rocky mountain fever
d) Relapsing fever

6) A farmer in the Midwest of America develops flu-like symptoms with fever, headache, muscle pain and cough since a week. Swabs specimens and the sputum sample was taken, radiography examination was also performed which showed diffused bilateral pneumonia. After several days of culture, white mold colonies were observed with large and small conidia. Name the possible pathogen the farmer is exposed to?
a) Coccidioidomycosis
b) Sporotrichosis
c) Histoplasmosis
d) Blastomycoses

7) What could be the source for the given above disease?
a) Hen
b) Horse
c) Cow
d) Pig

8) Which of the following is the usual route of infection for histoplasmosis?
a) Nose
b) Skin Wound
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

9) All of the following statements are true about Histoplasmosis duboisii, EXCEPT?
a) Mostly affects the skin and bone
b) This type of infection is confined to African regions
c) The usual entry of pathogen is through the skin abrasions
d) None of the above

10) Which of the following is most susceptible to Blastomycoses?
a) Dogs
b) Pigs
c) Hens
d) Pigeons

11) Which of the following pathogen from sputum specimen shows mold growth with tuberculate macroconidia and oval microconidia when cultured?
a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Coccidioides immitis
c) Blastomyces dermatitidis
d) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

12) Which of the following pathogen causes the fungal infection South American Blastomycosis?
a) Histoplasma duboisii
b) Blastomyces dermatitidis
c) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis 
d) Coccidioides immitis

13) What is the drug of choice for Paracoccidioidomycoses?
a) Amphotericin B
b) Voriconazole
c) Caspofungin
d) Itraconazole

14) Which of the following pathogen is found in soil having high nitrogen content?
a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Blastomyces dermatitidis
c) Aspergillus niger
d) Coccidioides immitis

15) Which type of fungal spores is produced by Coccidioides immitis?
a) Macroconidia
b) Arthroconidia
c) Chlamydospores
d) Sporangia

Multiple Choice Answers
1-c) Lungs are the site of infections for all the fungi >
2-a) The incubation temperature is 25-degree Celsius
3-c) Syphilis
4-b) The detection of spherules with endospores in sputum or tissue
5-b) San Joaquin Valley fever
6-c) Histoplasmosis
7-a) Hen
8-a) Nose
9-c) The usual entry of pathogen is through the skin abrasions
10-a) Dogs
11-a) Histoplasma capsulatum
12-c) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis 
13-d) Itraconazole
14-a) Histoplasma capsulatum 
15-b) Arthroconidia




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Tubular Function of Kidney & Electrolyte Balance : MCQ

May 10, 2019
The renal system covers the glomerular functiontubular functionacid-base homeostasis,  biochemical assessment,  and clinical correlations. The glomerulus is mainly involved in the filtration of the blood for the excretion of waste products while retaining most of the proteins. The renal tubules function in secretion, reabsorption, and excretion of electrolytes, ions, organic acids, urea. The renal tubules help regulate osmolality, volume, and pH of the blood. 

Tubular Function of Kidney and Electrolyte Balance
Multiple Choice Questions

1) Urine is a fluid excreted by the kidney passed through ureters, stored in the bladder and discharged through the urethra. Which of the following is not the characteristics of urine?
a) pH 5.0 to 6.0
b) Specific gravity- approximately 1.024
c) Amber color
d) Turbid

2) Transport of sodium in the renal tubules involve:
a) Na+/K+-ATPase located on the luminal membrane of proximal tubules
b) Na+/K+-ATPase located on the membrane of distal tubules
c) The entry of sodium into tubular cells by passive transport
d) Na+ is neither reabsorbed nor secreted in the renal tubules


3) Glucose is almost completely reabsorbed in the proximal tubules and no detectable amount of sugar is present in urine from healthy individuals. The renal threshold for glucose is
a) 100 mg/dl
b) 140 mg/dl
c) 180 mg/dl
d) 220 mg/dl

4) What is the site of reclamation of bicarbonate?
a) Glomerulus
b) Proximal Tubules
c) Loop of Henle
d) Distal Tubules

5) In Renal tubular acidosis type I, which of the following statement is true?
a) Bicarbonate re-absorption is impaired
b) Hydrogen ion secretion is impaired
c) Urinary pH is acidic below 5.5
d) Aldosterone action is impaired.

6) Amino acids are transported via specific transporter that is present in
a) Proximal tubules
b) Loop of Henle
c) Distal tubules
d) Collecting ducts

7) Approximately 90% of filtered calcium is reabsorbed in the nephron. Which of the following hormone increases absorption of calcium in an autocrine manner?
a) Parathyroid hormone
b) Antidiuretic hormone
c) Vit D3
d) Erythropoietin

8) The reabsorption of phosphate occurs via a secondary transport system. Which of the following ion is co-transported with phosphate ion?
a) Calcium
b) Magnesium
c) Potassium
d) Sodium

9) The urea is passively reabsorbed from the renal tubules along with sodium and water reabsorption.  The passive reabsorption is also facilitated by specific urea transports on
a) Proximal tubules
b) Loop of Henle
c) Distal Tubule
d) Collecting duct

10) Which of the following tubular absorption process require the ATP?
a) The movement of molecules or ions moving down their concentration gradient
b) The movement of impermeable molecules across the membrane down their concentration gradient associated with proteins
c) A protein-mediated transport against the concentration gradient
d) None of the above


11) Which of the following transporters is not the symporter that facilitates the transport of both molecule inside the membrane?
a) Na+/K+ transporter
b) Na+/Glucose transporter
c) Na+/Phosphate transporter
d) Na+/Amino acid transporter

12) The following transporter is the example of uniport system EXCEPT
a) Na+/K+ ATPase
b) Na+/H+ ATPase
c) Na+/Ca++ ATPase
d) Na+/Phosphate ATPase

13) What is the reabsorption rate of glucose in a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus with Glomerular filtration rate = 120 ml/min,
 Plasma glucose concentration = 350 mg/ml,
Urine glucose concentration 2000 mg/ml,
Total urine volume 4.32 L or 3mL/min

a) 320 mg/min
b) 360 mg/min
c) 400 mg/ml
d) 440 mg/ml

14) The proximal tubules undergo isosmotic reabsorption with the osmolality close to 300 mOsm/kg (similar to plasma). Which of the following process helps maintain the osmolality
a) Two-thirds of the filtered water, potassium are reabsorbed through kidney
b) Two-third of the filtered sodium is reabsorbed in the proximal tubules
c) Na+ coupled cotransport of glucose, amino acid, organic acids  occurs in proximal tubules
d) All of the above

15) About 80% of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorbed in proximal tubules. Which of the following enzymes or transporter is involved in the reabsorption of bicarbonate
a) Na+/K+ ATPase basolateral surface
b) Na+/H+ ATPase in the luminal surface
c) Carbonic anhydrase in tubules and proximal tubules
d) All of the above

16) Which of the following parts of the nephrons is important for the concentration of urine and have the highest osmolality?
a) Proximal tubules
b) Loop of Henle
c) Distal tubules
d) Collecting ducts

17 Renal tubular acidosis type I is the result of the low arterial blood pH, accumulation of fixed acids, hypokalemia.  Which of the following is true
a) Bicarbonate re-absorption in proximal tubules is impaired
b) Hydrogen ion secretion in the distal tubules is impaired
d) Aldosterone secretion/action is impaired
d) None of the above

18) Renal tubular acidosis IV is the result of the inability to secrete potassium into leading to hyperkalemia, decreased hydrogen secretion, and metabolic acidosis. Which of the following is true,
a) Bicarbonate re-absorption in proximal tubules is impaired
b) Hydrogen ion secretion in the distal tubules is impaired
d) Aldosterone secretion/action is impaired.
c) Urinary pH is acidic below 5.5

19) The thiazide diuretics inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride by inhibiting Na+ Cl- a co-transporter system which is present in
a) Proximal tubules
b) Loop of Henle
c) Early Distal tubules
d) Late Distal tubules

20) Which of the following is not the function of late distal tubules and collecting ducts?
a) Reabsorption of sodium and water
b) Site of action of aldosterone 
c) Site of ADH action
d) Reabsorption of hydrogen ions


Multiple Choice Answers
1-d) Turbid
2-a) Na+/K+-ATPase located on the luminal membrane of proximal tubules
3-c) 180 mg/dl
4-b) Proximal Tubules
5-b) Hydrogen ion secretion is impaired
6-a) Proximal tubules
7-c) Vit D3
8-d) Sodium
9-d) Collecting duct
10-c) A protein-mediated transport against the concentration gradient
11-a) Na+/K+ transporter
12-d) Na+/phosphate ATPase
13-b) 360 mg/min
14-d) All of the above
15-d) All of the above
16-b) Loop of Henle
17-d) Aldosterone secretion/action is impaired
18-b) Hydrogen ion secretion in the distal tubules is impaired
19- c) Early Distal tubules
20-d) Reabsorption of hydrogen ions


Tubular Function of Kidney & Electrolyte Balance : MCQ Tubular Function of Kidney & Electrolyte Balance : MCQ Reviewed by Biotechnology on May 10, 2019 Rating: 5

Medical Mycology: MCQ on Subcutaneous Mycoses

May 01, 2019
Multiple Choice Question on
MCQ on Subcutaneous Mycoses

1) A 35-year-old man residing in Mexico comes to the hospital with an ulcerative lesion in his left thumb and have been suffering for 10 days. He got a cut while taking care of the plants in his garden and the lesion in thumb has started to spread to the forearm with abscesses. When cultured on the fungal culture plate, cream-colored colony appear within 3 days. The colony growth changes its color to brown and to black after a week of incubation, which of the following is the likely pathogen?
a) Epidermophyton flocussum
b) Tinea versicolor
c) Sporothrix schenckii 
d) Basidiobolus ranarum

2) Which of the following is NOT the cultural characteristics of fungus causing subcutaneous mycoses?
a) Classification Includes dimorphic fungi
b) The infections are caused by saprophytic fungi
c) It usually occurs in tropical regions
d) Majority of fungi causes superficial skin infections 


3) Which is the other likely pathogen that mimics the skin lesions same as of Sporothrix schenckii when observed under the microscope?
a) Rickettsia spp
b) Nocardia spp >
c) Aspergillus
d) None of the above

4) All of the following statements are true about dematiaceous fungi, EXCEPT?
a) They have dark pigments in their cell wall
b) Induce a granulomatous reaction
c) Formation of conidia in cultures
d) Reproduces by sexual process 

5) All of the following cause Chromoblastomycosis, EXCEPT?
a) Phialophora verrucosa
b) Fonsecaea compacta
c) Fonsecaea pedrosoi
d) Exophilia dermatidis 

6) Which of the following is the most correct statement about eumycotic mycetoma?
a) It is characterized by infectious granulomas and abscesses >
b) The disease is more frequent in colder regions
c) It spreads from one person to another very easily
d) The mycoses are usually superficial

7) What are the primary sites of invasion in eumycotic mycetoma?
a) Neck and face
b) Hair shafts
c) Legs and hands 
d) Chest and back


8) Which of the following is the main etiological agent for mycoses of foot mostly occurring in the Indian subcontinent and the middle east?
a) Sporothrix schenckii
b) Phialophora verrucosa
c) Conidiobolus coronatus
d) Madurella mycetomatis 

9) Which of the following is the most common likely pathogen that causes actinomycotic mycetoma?
a) Madurella spp
b) Nocardia spp 
c) Exophiala spp
d) Fusarium spp

10) Which of the following is the commonly used laboratory diagnosis method of eumycotic mycetoma?
a) Demonstration of granules from abscesses by microscopy >
b) Histopathologic examination of an inflammatory cyst
c) Microscopic identification of fungi in skin scrapings from warty lesions
d) The culture isolation of the fungi from infected pus

11) Which of the following statement is true about the treatment of eumycotic mycetoma?
a) Administration of itraconazole and potassium iodide solution is effective
b) Amputation is the choice of treatment in most cases 
c) Amphotericin B and Ketoconazole are the drugs of choice
d) None of the above

12) Which of the following is the etiological agent of subcutaneous mucormycosis?
a) Madurella mycetomatis
b) Conidiobolus coronatus 
c) Exophilia jeanselmei
d) Fonsecaea compacta

13) Which fungi are responsible for the subcutaneous mycoses most primarily affecting the nasal cavity and face?
a) Histoplasma capsulatum
b) Basidiobolus ranarum
c) Blastomyces dermatitidis
d) Conidiobolus corronatus 


14) Which of the following is the drug of choice for sporotrichosis?
a) Itraconazole 
b) Amphotericin B
c) Ketoconazole
d) Posaconazole

15) What is the type of lesions mostly seen in chromoblastomycosis?
a) Abscesses with granulomas
b) Painless lesions having a cyst
c) Dark pigmented pruritic skin lesions
d) All of the above

Multiple Choice Answers 
1-c) Sporothrix schenckii >
2-d) Majority of fungi causes superficial skin infections 
3-b) Nocardia spp 
4-d) Reproduces by sexual process 
5-d) Exophilia dermatidis 
6-a) It is characterized by infectious granulomas and abscesses 
7-c) Legs and hands >
8-d) Madurella mycetomatis 
9-b) Nocardia spp 
10-a) Demonstration of granules from abscesses by microscopy 
11-b) Amputation is the choice of treatment in most cases 
12-b) Conidiobolus coronatus 
13-d) Conidiobolus corronatus 
14-a) Itraconazole 
15-c) Dark pigmented pruritic skin lesions 




Medical Mycology: MCQ on Subcutaneous Mycoses Medical Mycology: MCQ on Subcutaneous Mycoses Reviewed by Biotechnology on May 01, 2019 Rating: 5
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