Preparatory Guide on Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Physiology, Microbiology, Immunology, Pharmacology & Drug Discovery
Collection of 1500 plus MCQs

Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics: MCQ

June 22, 2019


Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics
Multiple Choice Question

1) Osmotic diuretics are contraindicated in

a) Increased intracranial tension
b) Increased intraocular tension
c) Established acute renal failure
d) Poisonings

2) The antidiuretic action of Desmopressin is due to activation of:

a) V 1a receptor
b) V 2 receptor
c) V 1b receptor
d) V1 and V2 receptor

3) Furosemide increases the excretion of all of the followings except

a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Uric acid
d) Calcium and magnesium


4) A group of college students is planning a mountain climbing trip. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for them to take to prevent mountain sickness?

a) Acetazolamide
b) Furosemide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Spironolactone

5) Drug of choice for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is:

a) Lypressin
b) Terlipressin
c) Desmopressin
d) Vasopressin


6) Which of the following agent is most effective in the treatment of hepatic edema?

a) Chlorthalidone
b) Triamterene
c) Furosemide
d) Spironolactone

7) All of the following drugs are nephrotoxic except

a) Amphotericin
b) Lithium
c) Metronidazole
d) Cocaine

8) The dose related toxicity of loop diuretics is:

a) Allergic reaction
b) Deafness
c) Hypomagnesemia
d) Hyperuricemia

9) Aminoglycosides induced nephrotoxicity is in the order of

a) Gentamicin> Tobramycin>Amikacin>Netilmicin> Streptomycin
b) Streptomycin > Tobramycin >Amikacin>Netilmicin > Gentamicin
c) Gentamicin > Amikacin > Netilmicin > Tobramycin > Streptomycin
d) Tobramycin > Amikacin>Netilmicin> Streptomycin > Gentamicin

10) All of the followings are non-renal actions of anti-diuretic hormone except

a) a neurotransmitter in central nervous system
b) promotes haemostasis
c) is a potent vasoconstrictor
d) increases the permeability of the membrane to water

11) Which of the following drugs is used for urinary incontinence? 

a) Flavoxate
b) Sodium citrate
c) Trimethoprim
d) Phenazopyridine

12) Concurrent use of Spironolactone & ACE inhibitors should be avoided because of danger of –

a) Hyperglycemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypokalemia
d) Hypoglycemia


13) Following diuretic promotes calcium reabsorption:

a) Spironolactone
b) Chlorothiazide
c) Furosemide
d) Ethacrynic acid

14) Following are the uses of Amiloride except

a) Adjunct to K+ wasting diuretics
b) Lithium induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
c) Congestive heart failure
d) a and b
e) a, b and c

15) Which one of the following diuretics is effective in severe renal failure? 

a) Loop diuretics
b) K+ sparing diuretics
c) Thiazides
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

16) Following statements about osmotic diuretics is true except

a) Mannitol gets filtered in glomerulus, but cannot be reabsorbed
b) To maintain osmotic balance, water is retained in the urine
c) Their presence leads to an increase in the osmolarity of the filtrate
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

17) Which of the following drug and its mechanism of action is not correct?

a) Acetazolamide: epithelial sodium channel blockers
b) Spironolactone: potassium sparing diuretics
c) Hydrochlorothiazide: inhibit sodium chloride symporter
d) Bumetanide: inhibits NA+/K+/2Cl- cotransport

18) Based on V2 receptor, followings are the therapeutic uses of vasopressin except:

a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Bedwetting in children
c) Bleeding esophageal varices
d) Hemophilia

19) Which of the following is a synthetic prodrug of vasopressin?

a) Terlipressin
b) Lypressin
c) Desmopressin
d) None of the above

20) Long term use of loop diuretics causes ………………….

a) Cirrhosis of liver
b) Deafness
c) Distal nephron hypertrophy
d) Renal insufficiency

Multiple Choice Answers
1-c) Established acute renal failure
2-b) V 2 receptor
3-c) Uric acid
4-a) Acetazolamide
5-c) Desmopressin
6-d) Spironolactone
7-c) Metronidazole 
8-b) Deafness
9-a) Gentamicin> Tobramycin>Amikacin>Netilmicin> Streptomycin
10-d) increases the permeability of the membrane to water 
11-a) Flavoxate
12-b) Hyperkalemia
13-b) Chlorothiazide
14-d) a and b
15-a) Loop diuretics
16-d) All of the above
17-a) Acetazolamide: epithelial sodium channel blockers
18)-c) Bleeding esophageal varices 
19-a) Terlipressin 
20-c) Distal nephron hypertrophy
Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics: MCQ Pharmacology of Renal System and Diuretics: MCQ Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes: MCQs

June 22, 2019

Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes

Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following drug and its mechanism of action is incorrect?

a) Sulfonylureas: promotes insulin release from the β cells of pancreas
b) Biguanides: improves target cell response to insulin without increasing pancreatic insulin secretion
c) Thiazolidinediones: promotes insulin release from the β cells of pancreas
d) α-glucosidase inhibitors: reversible inhibition of membrane bound α glucosidase in the intestine

2) Followings are the side effects of insulin except

a) Lipodystrophy
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Local injection site reactions
d) Anorexia

3) Following statements about type I diabetes are/is true except:

a) Shows classic symptoms of insulin deficiency as polydipsia, polyphagia, polyuria
b) Age of onset is commonly over 35 years of age
c) Obesity is usually present
d) Absolute deficiency of insulin caused by destroyed β cells
e) a, c and d
f) a and d

4) In case of heart failure with history of Type II diabetes, which of the following drugs would be a poor choice in controlling diabetes?

a) Glipizide
b) Pioglitazone
c) Metformin
d) Acarbose

5) Which of the following antidiabetic agent is least likely to cause hypoglycemia?

a) Metformin
b) Chlorpropamide
c) Insulin
d) Glyburide

6) Which of the following statement about insulin administration is incorrect?

a) Insulin is degraded in gastrointestinal tract if taken orally
b) In a hyperglycemic emergency, regular insulin is injected intravenously
c) Insulin is administered by intramuscular injection
d) Insulin is administered by subcutaneous injection

7) Following are the drugs that may reduce the effects of sulfonylureas except

a) Sulfonamides
b) Atypical antipsychotics
c) Corticosteroids
d) Diuretics

8) Which effect on glucose metabolism is exerted by Metformin?

a) Reduction in hepatic glucose output
b) Promotes insulin secretion
c) Increases hepatic glucose uptake
d) All of the above

9) What is the mechanism of action of Pioglitazone?

a) Increase release of endogenous insulin
b) Increase Hepatic gluconeogenesis
c) Increase target tissue sensitivity to insulin
d) Decrease intestinal absorption of glucose

10) Symptoms of hypothyroidism include all of the following except

a) Bradycardia
b) Mental slowing
c) Poor resistance to heat
d) Physical slowing

11) Goitrogens produce all of the following effects except

a) Suppress T3 & T4 secretion
b) Increase TSH levels
c) Goiter
d) Destroy thyroid tissue

12) Metyrapone is useful in testing the endocrine function of the

a) α cells of pancreatic islets
b) β cells of pancreatic islets
c) Neurohypophysis
d) Pituitary adrenal axis

13) Toxic effect of corticosteroids includes all of the following except

a) Hypoglycemia
b) Osteoporosis
c) Growth inhibition
d) Cushing’s syndrome

14) All of the following are useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia except

a) Calcitonin
b) Glucocorticoids
c) Vitamin D
d) Parenteral infusion of phosphate

15) The mechanism of action of Methimazole is

a) Inhibition of iodination of iodide
b) Inhibition of thyroid perioxidase
c) Inhibition of coupling of iodotyrosines
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

16) Which of the following adrenal steroids has the lowest mineralocorticoid activity?

a) Prednisolone
b) Hydrocortisone
c) Prednisone
d) Dexamethasone

17) Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of adrenal steroids?

a) Acute attack of bronchial asthma
b) Angina pectoris
c) Addison’s disease
d) Acute lymphatic leukemia

18) All of the followings are the features of Cushing’s syndrome except:

a) Buffalo torso
b) Moon face
c) Acne and hirsutism
d) All of the above

19) The mechanism of action of 131I is:

a) Inhibition of its own transport
b) Inhibition of iodine trapping
c) Thyroid cells necrosis without damaging neighboring cells
d) Inhibition of organification of iodine

20) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Ca2+ is absorbed by facilitated diffusion in intestine
b) Calcitonin decreases Ca2+ reabsorption
c) Phenytoin increases Ca2+ absorption
d) Ca2+ absorption is interfered by oxalates


Multiple Choice Answers
1-c) Thiazolidinediones: promotes insulin release from the β cells of pancreas 
2-d) Anorexia
3-f) a and d 
4-b) Pioglitazone 
5-a) Metformin 
6-c) Insulin is administered by intramuscular injection 
7-a) Metformin 
6-c) Insulin is administered by intramuscular injection 
7-a) Sulfonamides
8-a) Reduction in hepatic glucose output 
9)-c) Increase target tissue sensitivity to insulin
10-d) Destroy thyroid tissue 
12-d) Pituitary adrenal axis
13-a) Hypoglycemia
14-c) Vitamin D
15-d) All of the above
16-d) Dexamethasone
17-b) Angina pectoris
18-d) All of the above
19-c) Thyroid cells necrosis without damaging neighboring cells
20-b) Calcitonin decreases Ca2+ reabsorption 

Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes: MCQs Pharmacology of Endocrine Disorders, Thyroid Disorders and Diabetes: MCQs Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 22, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System: MCQ

June 16, 2019
Cardiovascular system Multiple Choice Questions

Cardiovascular system
Multiple Choice Questions


1. All of the following agents are high ceiling diuretics except:


a. Furosemide
b. Amiloride
c. Torsemide
d. Ethacrynic acid

2. Which of the following statement is true for ACE inhibitors?

a. ACE inhibitors reduce both cardiac preload and afterload, thereby decreasing cardiac work
b. ACE inhibitors increase both angiotensin II and bradykinin levels
c. ACE inhibitors decrease both angiotensin II and bradykinin levels
d. None of the above

3. Choose the correct antihypertensive agents and their mechanism of action:

a. Furosemide: inhibition of epithelial sodium transport at the late distal and collecting ducts
b. Losartan: increases aldosterone secretion causing sodium and water retention
c. Clonidine: acts centrally as an a2 agonist causing inhibition of sympathetic vasomotor center
d. a and c
e. a, b and c

4. Which of the following is a direct renin inhibitor?

a. Olmesartan
b. Eplerenone
c. Aliskiren
d. None of the above

5. Choose the cardioselective b-adrenergic blockers.

a. Atenolol
b. Propranolol
c. Betaxolol
d. Carteolol

6. The cellular action of calcium channel blockers is

a. They inhibit Na + - Ca 2+ exchanger in cardiac and smooth muscles
b. They interact with the L-type voltage-gated channel
c. Their interaction with the sodium pump results in the inhibition of calcium transport
d. Their interaction with the membrane phospholipids results in a nonselective decrease in ion transport

7. Followings are the pharmacological management of myocardial infarction to prevent future attacks

a. Platelet inhibitors
b. b-blockers
c. Control of hyperlipidemia
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

8. The cellular mechanism of action of digoxin is:

a. Inhibition of cAMP synthesis
b. Inhibition of b-adrenergic stimulation
c. Inhibition of ATP degradation
d. Inhibition of Na + K + ATPase

9. Which of the following drugs provide significant relaxation of smooth muscles of both venules and arterioles?

a. Nifedipine
b. Diazoxide
c. Sodium nitroprusside
d. Minoxidil

10. Which of the following drugs is not used for the management of congestive heart failure?

a. Enalapril
b. Nifedipine
c. Propranolol
d. Digoxin

11. Which of the following class of anti-arrhythmic drug suppresses abnormal automaticity and permit the sinoatrial node to again assume the role of a dominant pacemaker?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

12. The anticoagulant effect of heparin is explained by

a. Chelation of calcium ion
b. Reduction of vitamin k dependent factor
c. Activation of antithrombin III
d. Activation of plasmin

13. If quinidine and digoxin are administered concurrently, what effect does quinidine have on digoxin?

a. Plasma concentration of digoxin is increased
b. Absorption of digoxin from the gastrointestinal tract is decreased
c. Effect of digoxin on the AV node is antagonized
d. Metabolism of digoxin is prevented

14. The specific antidote for Heparin is;

a. Pralidoxime
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Vitamin K
d. EDTA

15. The therapeutic benefit of propranolol in angina is believed to be primarily due to:

a. Reduced production of catecholamines
b. A decreased requirement of myocardial oxygen
c. Increased sensitivity to catecholamines
d. Increased peripheral resistance

16. Low concentration of nitrates cause dilation of:

a. Large arteries
b. Veins
c. Precapillary sphincters
d. Arterioles

17. Following is the mechanism of action of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

a. Competitive inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
b. Reduction in endogenous cholesterol synthesis
c. Up-regulation of LDL receptor activity
d. None of above
e. All of the above

18. Nicotinic acid is;

a. Lipid modifying agent
b. Thrombolytic
c. Anticoagulant
d. Antiplatelet agent

19. A 46-year old man has been successfully treated with a thiazide diuretic for the last 5 years. Over the last 4 months, his diastolic pressure has steadily increased, and he has been kept on additional antihypertensive medication. He complains of several instances of being unable to achieve an erection and that he is no longer able to complete 3 sets of tennis. Which of the following second antihypertensive drug is most likely to cause the above mentioned complains?

a. Metoprolol
b. Captopril
c. Losartan
d. Nifedipine

20. Which of the following drug is a K+ channel opener?

a. Amiodarone
b. Nicorandil
c. Nifedipine
d. Captopril

Multiple Choice Answers
1-d) Ethacrynic acid
2- a) ACE inhibitors reduce both cardiac preload and afterload, thereby decreasing cardiac work
3- d)
4-c) Aliskiren
5-a) Atenolol
6-b) They interact with the L-type voltage-gated channel
7-d) All of the above
8-d) Inhibition of Na + K + ATPase
9-c) Sodium nitroprusside
10-b) Nifedipine
11-a) Class I
12-c) Activation of antithrombin III
13-a) Plasma concentration of digoxin is increased
14-b) Protamine sulfate
15-b) Decreased requirement of myocardial oxygen
16-b) Veins
17-e) All of the above
18-a) Lipid modifying agent
19-a) Metoprolol
20-b) Nicorandil


Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System: MCQ Pharmacology of Cardiovascular System: MCQ Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 16, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-I

June 16, 2019

Antimicrobials: Cell wall synthesis and protein synthesis inhibitorsMultiple Choice Questions


1) Which of the following combination is correct?

a) Penicillin: inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Cephalosporin: inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Aminoglycoside: inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d) Fluoroquinolones: inhibition of cell wall synthesis

2) What is a common feature among the following group of antibiotics like Penicillin, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, and Monobactams?

a) They all bind penicillin-binding protein-1 and inhibit their transpeptidase activity
b) They all have a β-lactam ring as a part of their biological interaction
c) None of them can penetrate to the central nervous system
d) All of the above

3) Amoxycillin is similar to Ampicillin in different respects except in ………………

a) Antibacterial spectrum
b) Penicillinase resistance
c) Hypersensitivity reaction
d) Oral absorption

4) Following statement about Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam and Tazobactam are true except:

a) Antibiotic activity of beta-lactamases is inhibited by beta-lactamases
b) Inhibits beta-lactamases and can be administered with penicillinase sensitive penicillins
c) Co-administered with carbapenems to block carbapenemase inactivation
d) Typically co-administered with the cephamycin

5) The following cephalosporin is associated with bleeding complications

a) Cefotaxime
b) Cefuroxime
c) Cefotetan
d) Cefazolin

6) A 26-year old male returns home from a holiday and complains of three days of dysuria and a purulent urethral discharge. He is diagnosed to be a case of gonorrhea. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment?

a) Ceftriaxone IM
b) Streptomycin
c) Gentamicin
d) Vancomycin IV

7) Redman syndrome is toxicity associated with

a) Amoxicillin
b) Daptomycin
c) Linezolid
d) Vancomycin

8) Cilastatin is given along with Imipenem for the following reason:

a) Inhibition of beta-lactamases thus preventing inactivation of Imipenem
b) Blocking of bacterial transpeptidase and preventing degradation of Imipenem
c) Decreasing hydrolysis of Imipenem
d) Inhibition of renal tubular dipeptidase thus preventing hydrolysis of Imipenem by renal tubular dipeptidase

9) A 72 years old man who was administered Penicillin intravenously developed generalized urticaria, swelling of lips, hypotension, and bronchospasm within 5 minutes. The first choice of treatment is to administer

a) High dose hydrocortisone tablet
b) Chlorpheniramine injection
c) Adrenaline injection
d) Isoprenaline injection

10) Followings are the penicillinase-resistant penicillin except:

a) Carbenicillin
b) Methicillin
c) Nafcillin
d) Cloxacillin

11) Which of the following antibiotic acts as a protein synthesis inhibitor?

a) Erythromycin, Chloramphenicol
b) Vancomycin, Cephamycin
c) Gentamicin, Tetracycline
d) Options a and c
e) Options b and c

12) Ototoxicity, vestibulo-toxic impairment, and nephrotoxicity are seen as major adverse effects of

a) Aminoglycosides
b) Macrolides
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) All of the above

13) Gray baby syndrome in neonates can be caused by

a) Penicillin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Quinolones
d) Sulphonamides

14) Fanconi syndrome can be caused by

a) Tetracycline
b) Quinolones
c) Sulphonamide
d) Penicillin

15) Following cephalosporins can cross the blood-brain barrier and therefore can be used in the treatment of meningitis except

a) Ceftazidime
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Cefotaxime
d) Cefixime

16) Random use of broad-spectrum antibiotic is contraindicated. They

a) Are extremely nephrotoxic
b) Can produce dependency and psychogenic symptoms
c) Can induce anaphylactoid reactions
d) Can interfere with indigenous microbiota

17) All of the followings are the adverse effects of tetracycline except:

a) Ototoxicity
b) Phototoxicity
c) Fatal hepatotoxicity
d) Yellow discoloration of teeth

18) Which of the following group of antibiotics show bacteriostatic action?

a) Fluoroquinolones
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Macrolides
d) Monobactams

19) Which of the following group of antibiotics in accordance with structure and mode of action to penicillin?

a) Chloramphenicol
b) Polymyxins
c) Cycloserines
d) Cephalosporins



1-a) Penicillin: inhibition of cell wall synthesis 
2-b) They all have a β-lactam ring as a part of their biological interaction
3-d) Oral absorption
4-b) Inhibits beta-lactamases and can be administered with penicillinase sensitive penicillins
5-c) Cefotetan
6-a) Ceftriaxone IM
7-d) Vancomycin
8-d) Inhibition of renal tubular dipeptidase thus preventing hydrolysis of Imipenem by renal tubular dipeptidase
9-b) Chlorpheniramine injection
10-a) Carbenicillin
11-d) Options a and c
12-a) Aminoglycosides
13-b) Chloramphenicol 
14-a) Tetracycline
15-d) Cefixime
16-d) Can interfere with indigenous microbiota
17-a) Ototoxicity
18-c) Macrolides
19-d) Cephalosporins


Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-I Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-I Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 16, 2019 Rating: 5

Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-II

June 13, 2019

Multiple Choice Question on Antimicrobial Agents

1) Which of the following antibiotic acts by inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis?
a) Penicillin
b) Quinolones
c) Sulphonamides
d) Cephalosporin

2) Followings are the second-generation quinolones except:
a) Gatifloxacin
b) Enoxacin
c) Ofloxacin
d) Ciprofloxacin

3) Which of the followings are the drug interactions of quinolones is correct?
a) Antacids, calcium supplements decrease the absorption of quinolones
b) Quinolones enhance the metabolism of theophylline
c) Antacids, calcium supplements increase absorption of quinolones
d) Increased metabolism of warfarin and caffeine

4) The mechanism of action of Trimethoprim is:
a) Inhibition of enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase
b) Activation of enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
c) Inhibition of enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
d) Activation of enzyme dihydrofolate reductase

5) All of the following combinations are true except:
a) Ciprofloxacin: inhibition of DNA gyrase
b) Polymyxin B: inhibition of 50s protein synthesis
c) Erythromycin: inhibition of 50s protein synthesis
d) Sulphonamide: inhibition of folic acid

6) Cotrimoxazole is a combination of drugs
a) Sulphonamide + Chloramphenicol
b) Sulphonamide + Lincomycin
c) Sulphonamide + Trimethoprim
d) Sulphonamide + Tetracycline

7) Following adverse effects are shown by the corresponding drugs are true except
a) Chloramphenicol: gray baby syndrome
b) Cefoperazone: disulfiram-like reactions
c) Tetracycline: Fanconi syndrome
d) Sulphonamide: red man syndrome

8) The following statement about quinolones is true except:
a) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
b) Gemifloxacin and Clinafloxacin are 4th generation quinolone
c) Norfloxacin is 1st generation quinolone and used in the treatment of UTI
d) Second generation quinolone has increased activity against gram-positive bacteria including S. pneumoniae

9) Ciprofloxacin should not be used with theophylline because 
a) It decreases the efficacy of theophylline
b) It increases the toxicity of theophylline
c) Decreases absorption of theophylline
d) Decreases the efficacy of ciprofloxacin

10) Prolonged therapy of …………………………… leads to the development of pseudomembranous colitis
a) Amikacin
b) Clindamycin
c) Streptomycin
d) Vancomycin

11) By binding to the fungal ergosterol and alters its cellular permeability is the mechanism of action of ……………………….
a) Ketoconazole
b) Griseofulvin
c) Clotrimazole
d) Amphotericin B

12) Most commonly used antifungal topically for suppression of local candida infection is …………………
a) Miconazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Nystatin
d) Flucytosine

13) The type of drug interactions between flucytosine and amphotericin B is ………………………
a) Synergism
b) Antagonism
c) Potentiation
d) Additive

14) Which antifungal acts by non-competitive inhibition of squalene epoxidase thereby inhibition of ergosterol synthesis?
a) Flucytosine
b) Griseofulvin
c) Terbinafine
d) Ketoconazole

15) For the treatment of tinea cruris and tinea corporis, which topical allylamine(s) can be used?
a) Terbinafine
b) Naftifine
c) Both
d) None of the above

16) Gynecomastia and menstrual irregularities are the adverse effects of ………………
a) Terbinafine
b) Flucytosine
c) Griseofulvin
d) Ketoconazole

17) Followings are the correct combination of drug and its mechanism of action except:
a) Polyenes: binds to and disrupt the fungal cell membrane
b) Griseofulvin: blocks intracellular microtubules
c) Allylamines: inhibition of squalene epoxidase and blocks ergosterol formation in the cell membrane
d) Flucytosine: inhibition of cytochrome P450 dependent 14 α-demethylase and blocks ergosterol formation in the cell membrane

18) Flucytosine acts by
a) Inhibition of thymidylate synthetase leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis
b) Disruption of the mitotic spindle during metaphase by interacting with fungal microtubules
c) Inhibition of squalene epoxidase and blocks ergosterol formation in the cell membrane
d) None of the above

19) The most potent azoles antifungal is ………………….
a) Itraconazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) Miconazole

20) Followings are the drug interactions of Ketoconazole except:
a) Inhibition of the metabolism of cyclosporine thereby increasing its toxicity
b) Enhanced metabolism of Astemizole and Terfenadine thereby decreasing arrhythmias
c) Cimetidine interferes with Ketoconazole absorption by increasing gastric pH
d) Rifamycins increase Ketoconazole hepatic metabolism

Multiple Choice Answers
1-b) Quinolones
2-a) Gatifloxacin
3-a) Antacids, calcium supplements decrease the absorption of quinolones
4-c) Inhibition of enzyme dihydrofolate reductase
5-b) Polymyxin B: inhibition of 50s protein synthesis
6-c) Sulphonamide + Trimethoprim
7-d) Sulphonamide: red man syndrome
8-d) Second generation quinolone has increased activity against gram-positive bacteria including S. pneumoniae
9-b) It increases the toxicity of theophylline
10-b) Clindamycin
11-d) Amphotericin B
12-c) Nystatin
13-a) Synergism
14-c)Terbinafine
15-c) Both
16-d) Ketoconazole
17-d)  Flucytosine: inhibition of cytochrome P450 dependent 14 α-demethylase and blocks ergosterol formation in the cell membrane
18-a) Inhibition of thymidylate synthetase leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis
19-a) Itraconazole
20-b) Enhanced metabolism of Astemizole and Terfenadine thereby decreasing arrhythmias
Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-II Pharmacology: MCQ on Antimicrobial Agents-II Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 13, 2019 Rating: 5

Drug for treatment of Gastrointestinal disease MCQ

June 13, 2019
Drug for treatment of Gastrointestinal disease MCQ

Drug for treatment of Gastrointestinal disease 
Multiple Choice Question

1) All of the following drugs act by reducing gastric acid secretion except:
a) Omeprazole
b) Famotidine
c) Pirenzepine
d) Sucralfate

2) The following statement about Omeprazole is true except:
a) It is highly plasma protein bound
b) Its bioavailability is not affected by food
c) It is metabolized by the liver
d) It provides long-lasting acid suppression

3) Which of the following drugs have an anti-androgenic effect?
a) Ranitidine
b) Cimetidine
c) Famotidine
d) Nizatidine

4) All of the following statements about antacid are true except:
a) Weak bases that neutralize gastric pH
b) Inhibits the formation of pepsin
c) Aluminum antacids cause diarrhea and magnesium antacids cause constipation
d) Aluminum antacids cause constipation and magnesium antacids cause diarrhea

5) The following antiemetic act by blocking D2 receptor in the CTZ:
a) Metoclopramide
b) Cisapride
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Domperidone


6) ………………. interferes with the most of CYP450 enzymes and thus leads to many drug interactions.
a) Famotidine
b) Omeprazole
c) Ondansetron
d) Cimetidine

7) Which one of the following is the less frequent side effect of Metronidazole?
a) Anorexia
b) Metallic taste
c) Glossitis
d) Abdominal cramps

8) The drug of choice for single dose treatment of onchocerciasis and strongyloidiasis is ……………
a) Ivermectin
b) Diethylcarbamazine citrate
c) Tetramisole
d) Niclosamide

9) Which of the following is a stool softener that has no effect on fat-soluble vitamins?
a) Castor oil
b) Phenolphthalein
c) Cascara Sagrada
d) Docusate sodium

10) All of the following are the rationale of ORS composition except:
a) It is isotonic
b) Glucose facilitates Na+ absorption
c) Enough K+ to replenish losses in loose stool
d) All of the above

11) The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy:
a) Bisacodyl
b) Liquid paraffin
c) Magnesium sulfate
d) Lactulose

12) Which one of the following statements for Albendazole is not true?
a) Absorption may be enhanced by administration with a fatty meal
b) Inhibits microtubule polymerization
c) Does not undergo first-pass metabolism
d) Eliminated in the bile

13) All of the following are the mechanism of action of metoclopramide except
a) D2 antagonism
b) 5-HT4 agonism
c) 5-HT3 antagonism
d) 5-HT4 antagonism

14) Which of the following is the most effective drug for motion sickness?
a) Hyoscine
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Prochlorperazine
d) Haloperidol


15) All of the following describes the drug interaction with metoclopramide except
a) Increases absorption aspirin
b) Reduces absorption of digoxin
c) Additive sedative effects occur when taken with sedative
d) a and b
e) a, b and c

16) Tardive dyskinesia is a major adverse effect of ………………
a) Cisapride
d) Promethazine
c) Hyoscine
d) Metoclopramide

17) The following are examples of stimulant purgatives except
a) Lactulose
b) Bisacodyl
c) Senna
d) Castor oil

18) Followings are the indications of Octreotide except:
a) Secretory diarrhea due to carcinoid tumor
b) Diarrhea due to vagotomy
c) Diarrhea due to short bowel syndrome
d) Acute diarrhea

19) Which one of the following drug interactions with anti-diarrheal agents is not true?
a) Adsorbents increase the absorption of drugs like digoxin, quinidine, clindamycin, and hypoglycemic agents
b) Adsorbents cause increased bleeding time when given along with anticoagulants
c) Antacids can decrease the effects of anticholinergic anti-diarrheal drugs
d) Adsorbents decrease the absorption of drugs like digoxin, quinidine, clindamycin, and hypoglycemic agents

20) Choose the correct drug and its mode of action combinations
a) Liquid paraffin: stool softener
b) Bisacodyl: osmotic purgative
c) Lactulose: osmotic purgative
a) Ispaghula: bulk-forming


Multiple Choice Answers
1-d) Sucralfate 
2-b) Its bioavailability is not affected by food 
3-b) Cimetidine 
4-d) Aluminum antacids cause constipation and magnesium antacids cause diarrhea 
5-c) Chlorpromazine 
6-d) Cimetidine
7-c) Glossitis 
8-a) Ivermectin 
9-d) Docusate sodium 
10-d) All of the above 
11-d) Lactulose 
12-c) Does not undergo first-pass metabolism 
13-d) 5-HT4 antagonism 
14-a) Hyoscine 
15-e) a, b and c 
16-d) Metoclopramide 
17-a) Lactulose 
18-d) Acute diarrhea 
19-a) Adsorbents increase the absorption of drugs like digoxin, quinidine, clindamycin, and hypoglycemic agents 
20-b) Bisacodyl: osmotic purgative 

Drug for treatment of Gastrointestinal disease MCQ Drug for treatment of Gastrointestinal disease MCQ Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 13, 2019 Rating: 5

MCQ on Drug for the treatment of Respiratory Disease

June 13, 2019
MCQ on Drug for the treatment of Respiratory Disease

Drug for the treatment of Respiratory Disease
Multiple Choice Question
(Bronchial asthma, Tuberculosis, Antihistaminic, and Cough therapy)

1) All of the followings are selective β2-agonist except:
a) Isoprenaline
b) Salbutamol
c) Terbutaline
d) Formeterol

2) All of the following combinations of drug and its mechanism of action is correct except:
a) Salbutamol: stimulation of β2 receptor causing bronchodilation
b) Sodium cromoglicate: mast cell stabilization
c) Zafirlukast: leukotriene modulators
d) Theophylline: non-selective β2 receptor stimulation causing bronchodilation

3) Which of the following statement about Salmeterol is not true?
a) It acts by relaxing muscles in the airways to improve breathing
b) It is a short-acting selective β2 agonist
c) Salmeterol inhalation is used to prevent asthma attacks
d) Salmeterol inhalation is used to treat COPD including emphysema and chronic bronchitis

4) Which of the following inhibits acetylcholine-mediated bronchospasm?
a) Theophylline
b) Ephedrine
c) Ipratropium
d) Salmeterol

5) All of the following statements about the use of glucocorticoids in asthma is true except:
a) Reduces bronchial inflammation and hyperactivity to stimuli
b) Have delayed onset of action
c) Given as prophylactic medications, used alone or combined with β-agonists
d) They are bronchodilators

6) Systemic corticosteroids are indicated in the following conditions EXCEPT:
a) Mild episodic asthma
b) Severe chronic asthma
c) Status asthmaticus
d) To prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome


7) Which one of the following is not a side effect due to systemic corticosteroids?
a) Adrenal suppression
b) Fluid retention, weight gain, hypertension
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Sleep disorders

8) All of the following statements about histamine is true except:
a) Increases blood pressure
b) Stimulates gastric acid secretion
c) Causes dilatation of capillaries
d) Causes constriction of bronchial smooth muscles

9) Isoniazid-induced liver damage:
a) Occurs primarily in patients under 30 years of age
b) Occurs with increased frequency in patients receiving concomitant ethambutol therapy
c) is probably due to the formation of a toxic hydrazine metabolite that binds to liver protein
d) is frequently associated with allergic manifestations such as eosinophilia, fever, and rash.

10) Development of peripheral neuritis is associated with …………………
a) Rifampin
b) Ethambutol
c) Isoniazid
d) Streptomycin

11) Which of the following is the drug of choice in the treatment of productive cough?
a) Dextromethorphan
b) Pholcodine
c) Bromhexine
d) Noscapine

12) Astemizole and terfenadine may cause fatal arrhythmia when used in combination with some macrolides or antifungal agents. They
a) Lengthen QT interval via direct action on cardiac H2 receptors
b) Increase metabolism of macrolide antibiotics
c) Cause accumulation of these agents following inhibition of CYP3A4, a cytochrome p450 enzyme
d) Exacerbate histamine-induced hypotension causing increased cardiac oxygen demand during reflex tachycardia

13) Which one of the following statements about cough is correct?
a) Cough must always be treated with an anti-tussive regardless of its cause
b) Codeine is effective in the treatment of productive cough
c) Pentoxyverine is especially well suited to treat cough in infants
d) Angiotensin II receptor blockers can cause cough

14) Choose the correct statement about rifampin:
a) It is the most active drug on slow-growing tubercle bacilli
b) Its antitubercular efficacy is lower than that of isoniazid
c) It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
d) It does not effectively cross the blood-CSF barrier


15) What is a serious adverse reaction caused by ethambutol?
a) Stomach upset
b) Eye damage
c) Gout
d) Hepatotoxicity

16) Choose the correct drug and its mechanism of action combination:
a) Rifampicin: inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
b) Pyrazinamide: interferes mycobacteria fatty acid synthesis and inactivates mycobacteria at alkaline pH
c) Ethambutol: Interferes with mycolic acid synthesis
d) Isoniazid: Inhibits arabinosyl transferases involved in cell wall biosynthesis
17) The following anti-tubercular drug is a potent CYP-P450 enzyme inducer:
a) Isoniazid
b) Ethambutol
c) Rifampicin
d) Pyrazinamide

18) Which of the following pharmacologic agents antagonizes adenosine?
a) Theophylline
b) Glucocorticoids
c) Cromolyn sodium
d) Terbutaline

19) All of the following statements about antihistaminic are correct EXCEPT:
a) Some histamine H1 receptor antagonists are used in the prophylaxis and treatment of motion sickness
b) Promethazine possesses anti-emetic, sedative and anti-muscarinic activity
c) Histamine H1 receptor antagonists inhibit the release of histamine
d) Histamine H1 receptor antagonists are effective in the treatment of hay fever

20) An anti-tubercular drug which is bacteriostatic to resting organism is………….
a) Pyrazinamide
b) Isoniazid
c) Ethambutol
d) Rifampicin

Multiple Choice Answers
1-a) Isoprenaline
2-d)Theophylline: non-selective β2 receptor stimulation causing bronchodilation
3-b) It is a short-acting selective β2 agonist
4-c) Ipratropium
5-d) They are bronchodilators
6-a) Mild episodic asthma
7-d) Sleep disorders
8-a) Increases blood pressure
9-c) is probably due to the formation of a toxic hydrazine metabolite that binds to liver protein
10-c) Isoniazid
11-c) Bromhexine
12-c) cause accumulation of these agents following inhibition of CYP3A4, a cytochrome p450 enzyme
13-d) Angiotensin II receptor blockers can cause cough
14-c) It is active against many atypical mycobacteria
15-b) Eye damage
16-a) Rifampicin: inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
17-c) Rifampicin
18-a) Theophylline
19-c) Histamine H1 receptor antagonists inhibit the release of histamine
20-b) Isoniazid


Author: Ronak Shrestha
MCQ on Drug for the treatment of Respiratory Disease MCQ on Drug for the treatment of Respiratory Disease Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 13, 2019 Rating: 5

Drug for treatment of Musculoskeletal disease: MCQ

June 13, 2019

Drug for treatment of Musculoskeletal disease
Multiple Choice Question on 

1) Following statements about non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are true except:
a) Cause relief of pain – analgesic effect
b) Suppress the signs and symptoms of inflammation
c) Exerts anti-pyretic effects
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

2) The constitutive cyclooxygenase-1 enzyme responsible for
a) Gastrointestinal cytoprotection
b) Renal blood flow maintenance and electrolyte homeostasis
c) Platelets aggregation
d) Option a, b and c
e) Option a and b only

3) High dose of aspirin (more than 4 gm/day) is eliminated by ……………… kinetics
a) Zero-order
b) First order

4) Followings are the features of salicylism except:
a) Tinnitus
b) Blurred vision
c) Hyperventilation
d) All of the above

5) The following statements on aspirin are true except:
a) Aspirin displaces oral anticoagulants from its plasma protein binding sites and increases its activities leading to toxicity
b) Enhances the uricosuric effects of probenecid and sulphinpyrazone
c) Barbiturate increases the analgesic effect of aspirin
d) Aspirin displaces oral hypoglycemics from its plasma protein binding sites and increases its activities leading to toxicity

6) Followings are the acetic acid derivates of NSAIDs except:
a) Nimesulide
b) Sundilac
c) Indomethacin
d) Diclofenac

7) NSAID used for the treatment of patent ductus arteriosus in premature babies is
a) Naproxen
b) Diclofenac
c) Indomethacin
d) Piroxicam

8) Reye’s syndrome is an adverse effect of ………………
a) Paracetamol
b) Ibuprofen
c) Sundilac
d) Aspirin

9) An antidote for acute paracetamol toxicity is …………………….
a) N-acetylcysteine
b) Charcoal
c) Vitamin K
d) None of the above


10) ………………. is used as an analgesic, not an as anti-inflammatory agent
a) Nimesulide
b) Piroxicam
c) Ketorolac
d) Indomethacin

11) Which one of the following statements concerning COX-2 inhibitors is correct?
a) The COX-2 inhibitors show greater analgesic activity than traditional NSAIDs
b) The COX-2 inhibitors show anti-inflammatory activity similar to that of traditional NSAIDs
c) The COX-2 inhibitors are cardioprotective
d) The COX-2 inhibitors decrease platelet function

12) Which of the following anti-gout drug acts by inhibition of uric acid synthesis?
a) Probenecid
b) Sulfinpyrazone
c) Colchicine
d) Allopurinol

13) Following statements about colchicine for treatment of gout is true except:
a) Acts by the arrest of the metaphase stage of multiplying inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation
b) Helps in reducing pain and inflammation of gout
c) Colchicine may rarely cause serious muscle damage, rhabdomyolysis
d) Can be used as a pain medication to relieve other causes of pain

14) The following statement about Probenecid is true except
a) High dose probenecid decreases the proximal tubular reabsorption of uric acid
b) High dose probenecid increases the proximal tubular reabsorption of uric acid
c) Low dose probenecid decreases the proximal tubular reabsorption of uric acid
d) Low dose probenecid increases the distal tubular secretion of uric acid


15) Phase II block phenomenon during skeletal muscle relaxation is seen in;
a) Rocuronium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Dantrolene
d) Orphenadrine

16) Which of the following statement about Allopurinol is correct?
a) Allopurinol inhibits the effect of Azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine
b) Allopurinol potentiates the effect of Azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine
c) Allopurinol dissolves uric acid crystals and limits the formation of new ones
d) Allopurinol belongs to a uricosuric class of drugs

17) The primary toxicity leading to death from an acetaminophen overdose is ……………….
papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis
a) pancytopenia
b) hepatocellular necrosis
c) myocarditis

18) The immunosuppressive effect of methotrexate is a result of its inhibition of which of these?
a) Dihydrofolate reductase
b) Leukocyte migration
c) Microtubule function
d) Phospholipase A2

19) Indomethacin causes the following adverse effects except:
a) Gastric irritation
b) Mental confusion
c) Decreased risk of bleeding due to increased platelet aggregability
d) Reduces Na+ excretion leading to increased fluid retention and fluid overload

20) All of the followings are intermediate acting non-depolarizing competitive skeletal muscle relaxants except:
a) Mivacurium
b) Vecuronium
c) Rocuronium
d) Atracurium



Multiple Choice Answers

1-d) All of the above
2- d) Options a, b and c
3-a) Zero-order
4-d) All of the above
5-b) Enhances the uricosuric effects of probenecid and sulphinpyrazone
6-a) Nimesulide
7-c) Indomethacin
8-d) Aspirin
9-a) N-acetylcysteine
10-c) Ketorolac
11-b) The COX-2 inhibitors show anti-inflammatory activity similar to that of traditional NSAIDs
12-d) Allopurinol
13-d) Can be used as a pain medication to relieve other causes of pain
14-a) High dose probenecid decreases the proximal tubular reabsorption of uric acid
15-b) Succinylcholine
16-b) Allopurinol potentiates the effect of Azathioprine and 6-mercaptopurine
17-b) hepatocellular necrosis
18-a) Dihydrofolate reductase
19-c) Decreased risk of bleeding due to increased platelet aggregability
20-a) Mivacurium

Drug for treatment of Musculoskeletal disease: MCQ Drug for treatment of Musculoskeletal disease: MCQ Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 13, 2019 Rating: 5

MCQ on Drugs targeting Autonomic Nervous System Cholinergic, Muscarinic, Adrenergic Receptor

June 12, 2019

Drugs targeting Autonomic Nervous System Cholinergic, Muscarinic, Adrenergic

Drugs targeting Autonomic Nervous System (Cholinergic, Muscarinic, Adrenergic)Multiple Choice Questions 


1) Indirect-acting cholinomimetic agent acts via

a) Stimulation of action of acetylcholinesterase
b) Binds to and activate muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
c) Inhibition of hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine
d) Release of acetylcholine from the storage site

2) All of the followings are reversible indirectly acting cholinomimetics except:

a) Physostigmine
b) Neostigmine
c) Edrophonium
d) Echothiophate


3) The drug used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is ………………….

a) Ambenonium
b) Pyridostigmine
c) Neostigmine
d) Edrophonium

4) Which of the following cholinomimetic drug is used for the treatment of craving reduction in nicotine addiction?

a) Varenicline
b) Cevimeline
c) Galantamine
d) Bupropion

5) Stimulation of which subtype of the muscarinic cholinergic receptor causes miosis?

a) M1
b) M2
c) M4
d) M3
e) M5

6) The drug of choice in the management of atropine poisoning is ……………………

a) Edrophonium
b) Pyridostigmine
c) Echothiophate
d) Physostigmine


7) Following are the uses of Bethanechol except:

a) Neurogenic ileus
b) Congenital megacolon
c) Postpartum or postoperative urinary retention
d) All of the above

8) Which of the following muscarinic antagonist is used to prevent or decrease vestibular disturbances, motion sickness?

a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
d) Tropicamide

9) Which of the antimuscarinic agent is effective in the treatment of mushroom poisoning?

a) Pralidoxime
b) Pilocarpine
c) Atropine
d) Homatropine

10) In organophosphate poisoning, the drug is given to relieve neuromuscular manifestation is………………….

a) Pralidoxime
b) Atropine
c) Homatropine
d) Benzodiazepines

11) All of the following actions are mediated by muscarinic receptors except:

a) Negative chronotropic and inotropic effects
b) Detrusor muscle contraction and relaxation of trigone and sphincter muscles of the urinary bladder
c) Decreased peristalsis and contraction of the gastrointestinal tract
d) Increased peristalsis and relaxation of the gastrointestinal tract

12) Following statements about indirect-acting adrenergic agonists are true except:

a) Interaction with a specific adrenoceptor
b) Release of the endogenous catecholamines
c) Do not bind to specific receptor
d) Inhibition of reuptake of catecholamines already released

13) Which of the following alpha-adrenergic blocking drugs show first dose phenomenon?

a) Yohimbine
b) Phentolamine
c) Tolazoline
d) Prazosin

14) Metoprolol is different from propranolol in the following context;

a) Metoprolol is less likely to cause bronchoconstriction
b) Metoprolol has selectivity for beta-2 adrenoceptor
c) Metoprolol is used to treat hypertension
d) Metoprolol inhibits renin release from the kidney


15) Following agent act by competitive antagonism at the neuromuscular junction of nicotinic cholinoceptors:

a) Atracurium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Dantrolene
d) Isoflurophate


16) Drug of choice for the treatment of altitude sickness is …………………

a) Timolol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetazolamide
d) Neostigmine


17) A patient with antimuscarinic toxicity shows the following symptoms:

a) Blurred vision
b) Xerostomia
c) Urinary retention
d) All of the above

18) Which of the following is the β blocker with additional vasodilatory effect?

a) Propanolol
b) Nadolol
c) Pindolol
d) Carvedilol

19) All of the following are the adverse effects of selective β 2 agonists except

a) Tremor
b) Tachycardia
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Hyperkalemia

20) Which of the following agent is used to treat malignant hyperthermia?

a) Dantrolene
b) Atracurium
c) Succinylcholine
d) Mecamylamine


Multiple Choice Answers
1-c) Inhibition of hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine
2-d)Echothiophate
3-d)Edrophonium
4-d)Varenicline
5-d)M3
6-d)Physostigmine
7-d)All of the above
8-b) Scopolamine
9-c) Atropine
10-a) Pralidoxime
11-c)Decreased peristalsis and contraction of the gastrointestinal tract
12-a) Interaction with a specific adrenoceptor
13-d) Prazosin
14-a)Metoprolol is less likely to cause bronchoconstriction
15-a) Atracurium
16-c) Acetazolamide
17-d) All of the above
18-d) Carvedilol
19-d) Hyperkalemia
20-a) Dantrolene
MCQ on Drugs targeting Autonomic Nervous System Cholinergic, Muscarinic, Adrenergic Receptor MCQ on Drugs targeting Autonomic Nervous System Cholinergic, Muscarinic, Adrenergic Receptor Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 12, 2019 Rating: 5

Introduction to Pharmacology, Pharmacodynamics and Pharmacokinetic MCQ

June 12, 2019


Introduction to Pharmacology, Pharmacodynamics, and Pharmacokinetic 
Multiple Choice Question 

1) A molecule that interacts as an activator or inhibitor and brings about a change in the biological function through its chemical actions is known as …………………………
a) Hormone
b) Neurotransmitter
c) Protein
d) Drug

2) The action of the drug on the body is known as ……………………….
a) Pharmacokinetic
b) Pharmacodynamic
c) Pharmacology
d) Pharmacotherapeutics

3) Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Weak bases are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach
b) Co-administration of atropine speed up the absorption of a second drug
c) Drugs showing a large Vd can be efficiently removed by dialysis of the plasma
d) Weak acids are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach

4) The desired physicochemical properties of drugs are:
a) Ionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
b) Unionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
c) Unionized, highly plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
d) Unionized, highly plasma protein bound, lipid-insoluble

5) Which of the following statement about receptor is not true?
a)  It determines the quantitative relations between dose or concentration of drug and pharmacologic effects.
b) Responsible for the selectivity of drug action.
c) Mediates the actions of pharmacological agonists and antagonists.
d) None of the above

6) The efficacy of agonist is reduced without affecting its potency is found in ………………….
a) Antagonism.
b) Noncompetitive
c) Competitive
d) Non-competitive and competitive
d) Inverse

7) Which of the following statement about competitive antagonism is true?
a) Can cause a parallel shift to the right in a drug-response curve for agonist
b)  Can be reversed by increasing dose of agonist
c) Appear to decrease the potency of the agonist
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

8) Which of the following effect can be seen in competitive antagonism in a drug-response curve?
a) Non-parallel left shift
b) Non-parallel right shift
c) Parallel right shift
d) Parallel left shift

9) Agonists have
a) Affinity to receptors only
b) Affinity and maximal intrinsic activity
c) Affinity but no intrinsic activity
d) Affinity and submaximal intrinsic activity

10) The IV administration of drugs are
a) 100% bioavailable
b) Rapidly absorbed
c) Undergoes the first-pass metabolism
d) Rapidly excreted by renal

11) The concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of that drug’s maximal effects is termed as ……………….
a) Efficacy
b) Potency
c) Affinity
d) Bioavailability 

12) For a drug given orally, the principal site of drug absorption is ……………………
a) Stomach
b) Small intestine
c) Oesophagus
d) Large intestine

13) Biotransformation of the drugs may lead to all of the following except
a) Inactive metabolite from an active drug
b) Active metabolite from an active drug
c) Active metabolite from an inactive drug
d) Inactive metabolite from inactive drug

14) Depot of the drug can be formed by …………………….
a) Subcutaneous and intramuscular route
b) Intravenous route
c) Subcutaneous route
d) Intradermal and subcutaneous route

15) Conjugation of a drug with glucuronic acid via glucuronosyl transferase with result in all of the following except
a) production of a more water-soluble moiety that is more easily excreted
b) a drug with a different pharmacological mechanism of action
c) a new compound that may also possess pharmacologic activity
d) a drug molecule that may undergo enterohepatic recirculation and reintroduction into the bloodstream

18) All of the following concerning the blood-brain barrier (BBB) and the passage of drugs from the systemic circulation to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is true except
a) ionized drugs are likely to cross into the CSF than unionized drugs
b) the higher the lipid solubility of a drug, the more likely it will cross into the CSF
c) inflammation of the meninges improves the likelihood that drugs will cross the BBB as compared to an uninflamed state

17) P glycoprotein serves to pump back the drugs into the systemic circulation from endothelial cell linings of the BBB
The following log dose-response curve show that

a) Drug A and B have equal potency
b) Drug B and C have equal efficacy
c) Drug A and B have equal efficacy
d) Drug A and C have the same affinity and efficacy

18) Phase II metabolism associated with a genetic polymorphism is ………………………….
a) Acetylation
b) Oxidation
c) Reduction
d) Glutathione conjugation

19) When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half-life intervals, the steady-state plasma drug concentration is reached after:
a) 2-3 half-lives
b) 4-5 half-lives
c) 6-7 half-lives
d) 8-10 half-lives

20) An ‘orphan drug’ is
a) A very cheap drug
b) A drug which has no therapeutic use
c) A drug which acts on orphan receptors
d) A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease

Multiple Choice Answers
1-d) Drug
2-b) Pharmacodynamic
3-d) Weak acids are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach
4-a) Ionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
5-d) None of the above
6-a) Noncompetitive
7-d) All of the above
8-c) Parallel right shift
9-b) Affinity and maximal intrinsic activity
10-a) 100% bioavailable
11- b) Potency
12- b) small intestine
13- d) Inactive metabolite from inactive drug
14-a) Subcutaneous and intramuscular route
15-b) a drug with a different pharmacological mechanism of action
16-a) ionized drugs are likely to cross into the CSF than unionized drugs
17-b) Drug B and C have equal efficacy
18-a) Acetylation
19-b) 4-5 half-lives
20-d) A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease

Introduction to Pharmacology, Pharmacodynamics and Pharmacokinetic MCQ Introduction to Pharmacology, Pharmacodynamics and Pharmacokinetic MCQ Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 12, 2019 Rating: 5

MCQ on Pathogenic Viruses, Structure and Function

June 11, 2019
Pathogenic Viruses, Structure, and Function  
Multiple Choice Question

1) What are the different means of the classification of viruses? Select all the correct options below
a) Structure of the viruses
b) Transmission of diseases by viruses
c) Biochemical properties of the viruses
d) Host range of the viruses

2) All of the following are the characteristics of the structure of the virus, EXCEPT?
a) Virus consists of either DNA or RNA genome
b) The outer layer of all viruses consists of a lipid membrane
c) The capsid of the viruses is made up of protein
d) The size of viruses may range from 18 nm to 300 nm

3) All of the following viruses are resistant to drying and detergents, EXCEPT?
a) Reoviruses
b) Adenoviruses
c) Picornaviruses
d) Togaviruses

4) Which of the following viruses have the genome replication in the nucleus?
a) Papillomaviruses
b) Picornaviruses
c) Togaviruses
d) Reoviruses

5) Which of the following viruses can be transmitted through the fecal-oral route?
a) Togavirus
b) Adenovirus
c) Retrovirus
d) Poxvirus

6) Rhinoviruses can be killed by acid and high temperature
a) True
b) False

7) Yellow fever and dengue fever virus both belong to which family group of the viruses?
a) Picornaviruses
b) Retroviruses
c) Flaviviruses
d) Paramyxoviruses

8) What are the general features of the Polio virus? Select all the correct options given below.
a) It is a capsid virus
b) The mode of transmission is fecal-oral route
c) It has the RNA genome
d) Larger than Rotavirus

9) Which of the following virus have genome replication in the cytoplasm?
a) Orthomyxoviruses
b) Poxviruses
c) Herpesviruses
d) None of the above

10) Which of the following statement is most correct about Retroviruses?
a) It has the circular DNA
b) It is double-stranded DNA virus
c) Make DNA from RNA template
d) Viral DNA replicates in the host cytoplasm

11) All of the following are the properties of Paramyxoviruses, EXCEPT?
a) Its genome is segmented
b) It is an enveloped virus
c) The causative agent of mumps and measles
d) It is larger than Orthomyxoviruses in size

12) Which of the following is the largest virus?
a) Polio virus
b) Flu virus
c) Dengue virus
d) Smallpox virus

13) Which of the following virus genome is translated into polyprotein?
a) Smallpox virus
b) Yellow fever virus
c) Norwalk virus
d) All of the above

14) Which of the following virus use positive RNA template to replicate the genome?
a) Influenza virus
b) Epstein-Barr virus
c) Chikungunya virus
d) Human papilloma virus

15) Name the bacterial virus from the following options given below?
a) Tobacco mosaic virus
b) T4 bacteriophage
c) Ebola virus
d) Influenza B virus

Multiple Choice Answers
1-All of the above a, b, c, d
2-b) The outer layer of all viruses consists of a lipid membrane
3-d) Togaviruses
4-a) Papillomaviruses
5-b) Adenovirus
6-a) True
7-c) Flaviviruses
8-Option a, b & c
9-b) Poxviruses
10-c) Make DNA from RNA template
11-a) Its genome is segmented
12-d) Smallpox virus
13-c) Norwalk virus
14-a) Influenza virus
15-b) T4 bacteriophage
MCQ on Pathogenic Viruses, Structure and Function

MCQ on Pathogenic Viruses, Structure and Function MCQ on Pathogenic Viruses, Structure and Function Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 11, 2019 Rating: 5

MCQ on Opportunistic Mycoses (Candida albicans, Aspergillus flavus, Cryptococcus neoformans)

June 01, 2019
Opportunistic Mycoses, Candida albicans,Aspergillus flavus, Cryptococcus neoformans
Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following is the example of opportunistic mycoses?
a) Aspergillosis
b) Salmonellosis
c) Listeriosis
d) Sporotrichosis

2) Which of the following is NOT the general characteristics of Candida albicans?
a) It is a dimorphic fungus
b) Part of a normal human flora
c) The primary cause of yeast infections
d) All of the above

3) Which of the following pathogenic fungi is the member of human microbiota?
a) Aspergillus niger
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Candida albicans 
d) Rhizopus oryzae

4) Zygomycosis is caused by:
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Rhizopus oryzae 
c) Aspergillus fumigatus
d) Penicillium marneffei

5) A 11 years old girl comes to a clinic with white lesions around the mouth and tongue, the girl has developed fever, swelling, and pain around the infected area. Swab specimen is taken and microscopic examination showed budding spherical cells with hyphae. After 24 hours of culture of the specimen, smooth cream-colored colonies are observed. Name the most possible pathogen responsible for the infection?
a) Rhizopus oryzae
b) Aspergillus fumigatus
c) Pneumocystis jiroveci
d) Candida albicans 

6) All of the following are the morphological characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans, EXCEPT?
a) It is a capsulated yeast
b) Produces urease
c) Cannot be isolated in a laboratory
d) None of the above

7) Pulmonary Aspergilloma is usually common in patients infected who have …............?
a) Peptic ulcer
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Multiple sclerosis
d) Cirrhosis

8) Which of the following fungal pathogen grows in pigeon droppings (excreta)?
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Coccidioides immitis
c) Penicillium marfe
d) Pneumocystis jiroveci

9) Which of the following fungi produces carcinogenic toxic metabolites?
a) Aspergillus fumigatus
b) Cryptococcus neoformans
c) Coccidioides immitis
d) Aspergillus flavus 

10) Which of the following product is most commonly infected by Aspergillus flavus?
a) Nuts >
b) Bread
c) Honey
d) Grapes

11) A 50 years old man suffered a burn injury in the right arm, after a few days he developed blisters and ulcers around the burnt area. When examined redness and swelling around the infected area is observed. Fungal infection was suspected and biopsy was done, direct microscopic examination showed thick, branched septate hyphae with a black round tip. In culture, cottony colonies can be observed after a few hours of incubation. Name the possible pathogen responsible for the infection?
a) Pneumocystis jeroveci
b) Rhizopus oryzae 
c) Coccidioides immitis
d) Aspergillus flavus

12) Which of the following antibiotics is most effective for the treatment for pulmonary aspergilloma?
a) Penicillin G
b) Fluconazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) Amphotericin B

13) Name the fungal infection which is most commonly seen in patients with advanced HIV/AIDS and the wart-like skin lesions often appear on the face?
a) Mucormycosis
b) Histoplasmosis
c) Penicillosis
d) Blastomycosis

14) Which of the following human fungal species also present in the lungs of animals, causes pneumonia in immunocompromised patients?
a) Aspergillus niger
b) Pneumocystis jiroveci 
c) Penicillium marneffei
d) All of the above

15) Which of the following fungi causes vaginal thrush?
a) Candida albicans 
b) Rhizopus oryzae
c) Candida tropicalis
d) Aspergillus fumigatus


1- a) Aspergillosis >
2- d) All of the above >
3- c) Candida albicans >
4- b) Rhizopus oryzae >
5- d) Candida albicans >
6- c) Cannot be isolated in laboratory >
7- b) Cystic fibrosis >
8- a) Cryptococcus neoformans >
9- d) Aspergillus flavus >
10-a) Nuts >
11-b) Rhizopus oryzae >
12-d) Amphotericin B >
13- c) Penicillosis >
14- b) Pneumocystis jiroveci >
15-a) Candida albicans >


MCQ on Opportunistic Mycoses (Candida albicans, Aspergillus flavus, Cryptococcus neoformans) MCQ on Opportunistic Mycoses (Candida albicans, Aspergillus flavus, Cryptococcus neoformans) Reviewed by Biotechnology on June 01, 2019 Rating: 5
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